if I transform the time-dependent Schrödinger equation without a potential I get:
$$ - \hbar \omega \psi(\omega,x) = \frac{- \hbar^2}{2m} \frac{\partial^2 \psi(\omega,x)}{\partial x^2}$$
The solutions is clealy: $$\psi(\omega,x)={\it C1}\,{{\rm e}^{{\frac {\sqrt {2\omega m}x}{\sqrt {\hbar}}}} }+{\it C2}\,{{\rm e}^{{-\frac {\sqrt {2\omega m}x}{\sqrt {\hbar}}}} } $$
I don't really understand this result. The problem is, that if I want to transform back, the Fourier-transform will be divergent, so what does this mean regarding my solution? Is there a work-around to get rid of this divergence? Why did this Fourier-transform fail?
(Should I have used the Laplace-transform?)