2
$\begingroup$

Why is it true that anyons can have angular momentum taking any real value? Why aren't they restricted to the $j(j+1)$ integer values most are familar with?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Starting in a 3 dimensional space, any path where one particle traces a closed loop around another can be trivially contracted to a point where no motion occurred. This then means that the wavefunction before and after the motion must be the same and so the wavefunction can only be multiplied by a phase of $e^{i2\pi n}$ where $n$ is an integer. In 2 dimensions, however, the closed path around another particle cannot be contracted to a point. Thus, the wavefunction does not need to return to its original form and may be multiplied by a phase of the form $e^{i\theta}$ where $\theta$ is a real number.

More detail is available in the book Anyons by Jon Magne Leinaas.

$\endgroup$
0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.