6
$\begingroup$

In page 488 of Peskin and Schroeder, it is stated (emphasis mine):

It is not difficult to check using (15.27) and (15.21) that, even for finite transformations, the covariant derivative has the same transformation law as the field on which it acts.

I was trying to indeed verify that.

This is what I have tried:

  1. $V\left(x\right)\in SU\left(2\right)^{\mathbb{R}^4}$
  2. $\psi\left(x\right)\mapsto V\left(x\right)\psi\left(x\right)$.
  3. $D_\mu\left(x\right)\equiv\partial_\mu-igA_{\mu,\,j}\left(x\right)\frac{\sigma^j}{2}$.
  4. $igA_{\mu,\,j}\left(x\right)\frac{\sigma^j}{2}\mapsto V\left(x\right)igA_{\mu,\,j}\left(x\right)\frac{\sigma^j}{2}\left[V\left(x\right)^\dagger\right]-V\left(x\right)\left\{\partial_\mu\left[V\left(x\right)^\dagger\right]\right\}$

Thus:

\begin{align} D_\mu\left(x\right)\psi\left(x\right) \mapsto & \left\{\partial_\mu -V\left(x\right)igA_{\mu,\,j}\left(x\right)\frac{\sigma^j}{2}\left[V\left(x\right)^\dagger\right]+V\left(x\right)\left\{\partial_\mu\left[V\left(x\right)^\dagger\right]\right\}\right\}V\left(x\right)\psi\left(x\right) = \\\ &= \left[\partial_\mu V\left(x\right)\right]\psi\left(x\right)+V\left(x\right)\partial_\mu\psi\left(x\right)-V\left(x\right)igA_{\mu,\,j}\left(x\right)\frac{\sigma^j}{2}\psi\left(x\right)+V\left(x\right)\left\{\partial_\mu\left[V\left(x\right)\dagger\right]\right\}V\left(x\right)\psi\left(x\right) = & \\\ &= V\left(x\right)D_\mu\left(x\right)\psi\left(x\right)+\left\{\left[\partial_\mu V\left(x\right)\right] + V\left(x\right)\left\{\partial_\mu\left[V\left(x\right)\dagger\right]\right\}V\left(x\right)\right\}\psi\left(x\right) \end{align}

So as far as I understand, $\boxed{\left[\partial_\mu V\left(x\right)\right] + V\left(x\right)\left\{\partial_\mu\left[V\left(x\right)\dagger\right]\right\}V\left(x\right)\stackrel{?}{=}0}$ should be zero.

To prove that I have used the fact that $VV\dagger=1$:

\begin{align} \partial_\mu\left[ V\left(x\right)\right] + V\left(x\right)\left\{\partial_\mu\left[V\left(x\right)\dagger\right]\right\}V\left(x\right) &= \\ \partial_\mu\left[ V\left(x\right)1\right] + V\left(x\right)\left\{\partial_\mu\left[V\left(x\right)\dagger\right]\right\}V\left(x\right) &= \\ \partial_\mu\left[ V\left(x\right)V\left(x\right)^\dagger V\left(x\right)\right] + V\left(x\right)\left\{\partial_\mu\left[V\left(x\right)\dagger\right]\right\}V\left(x\right) &= \\ \left[\partial_\mu V\left(x\right)\right]V\left(x\right)^\dagger V\left(x\right) +V\left(x\right)\left[ \partial_\mu V\left(x\right)^\dagger \right]V\left(x\right) +V\left(x\right)V\left(x\right)^\dagger\left[ \partial_\mu V\left(x\right)\right] + V\left(x\right)\left\{\partial_\mu\left[V\left(x\right)\dagger\right]\right\}V\left(x\right) &= \\2\left\{\partial_\mu\left[ V\left(x\right)\right] + V\left(x\right)\left\{\partial_\mu\left[V\left(x\right)\dagger\right]\right\}V\left(x\right)\right\}\end{align}

Is this all correct?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

I found this question while struggling with the same issue. The solution turns out to be quite simple. This works for any general gauge group $G$, with elements $g(x),\ g^{-1}(x),$ and $e$. $$ 0 = \partial_\mu(e) = \partial_\mu (gg^{-1}) = (\partial_\mu g) g^{-1} + g \partial_\mu g^{-1} $$ so $$ \partial_\mu g = - g (\partial_\mu g^{-1}) g $$ In your case $g=V$ and $g^{-1}=V^\dagger$, so this gives you the result you're looking for.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.