In inflationary theory, many papers start off by making the slow-roll approximation, on which many things depend. This approximation is usually presented by requiring that two 'slow-roll parameters' are small: $$\epsilon_V\equiv\frac{1}{16\pi G}\left(\frac{V'}{V}\right)^2 \ll 1$$ $$|\eta_V|\equiv \frac{1}{8\pi G}\left(\frac{V''}{V}\right)\ll 1$$ We then have $$H^2=\frac{8\pi G}{3}V$$ $$3H\dot{\phi}=-V'$$ Now, the first of these two conditions is reasonably easily derived: \begin{align*} \frac{\ddot{a}}{a}&\gg 0\\ \dot{H}+H^2 &\gg 0\\ -\frac{\dot{H}}{H^2}&\ll 1\\ \frac{1}{16\pi G}\left(\frac{V'}{V}\right)^2=\epsilon_V&\ll 1 \hspace{1cm}\text{used slow roll approx.} \end{align*}
However, I'm not sure how to find the second one (note that I am not asking for an intuitive explanation, I understand what the second parameter represents, I just wanna know how to derive it). Could someone tell me how to derive it (or what the original premise, analogous to $\ddot{a}/a\gg 0$ for $\epsilon_V$, is)?