2
$\begingroup$

The Hamiltonian for a classical simple harmonic oscillator is $$ H = \frac{p^2}{2m} + \frac{1}{2}m\omega^2x^2$$ With the usual choice of the ladder operators $$a = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2m\omega\hbar}}(m\omega\hat{x} +i\hat{p}) , \ \ \ \ \ a^{\dagger} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2m\omega\hbar}}(m\omega\hat{x} -i\hat{p})$$ we get the quantum Hamiltonian $ \hat{H} = (a^{\dagger}a + \frac{1}{2})\hbar\omega$ so that $ E_n = \hbar\omega(n+\frac{1}{2})$.

BUT

If I write the classical Hamiltonian $$H= \frac{1}{2m}(p+im\omega x)(p-im\omega x)$$

and replace $a$ and $a^{\dagger}$, we get $\hat{H} = \hbar\omega aa^{\dagger}$ and $E_n = \hbar\omega(n+1)$...

SO

On the plus side the energy spacing is the same, but the zero-point energy is different. Now I guess that since we only detect energy differences and not absolute energies, this does not change the Physics.

Is this right?

How come we get two answers though? Mathematically I mean.

Are there any other quantum Hamiltonians that can be obtained in a similar way?

$\endgroup$
5
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/22506/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/65784/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/90051/2451 , and links therein. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Apr 14, 2014 at 14:39
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ The problem is that you can't factor the quantum Hamiltonian in that way because $\hat x$ and $\hat p$ do not commute. BMS's answer (Qmechanic's 3rd link above) gives a very good explanation of the correct derivation $\endgroup$
    – Kyle Kanos
    Commented Apr 14, 2014 at 14:44
  • $\begingroup$ So my reasoning about absolute and relative energies does not apply here? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 14, 2014 at 15:04
  • $\begingroup$ also are there any other other examples of classical hamiltonians that give different quantum counterparts like in this case? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 14, 2014 at 16:57
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ Well, all hamiltonians can be given a global energy shift upon quantization by adding a multiple of $ i (xp-px) $ before quantizing, which is essentially what you're doing. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 14, 2014 at 21:27

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

The second Hamiltonian is different from the first! There is an extra term of -$\frac{\hbar\omega}{2}$

This terms comes from the fact that

$im\omega(xp-px)=-\hbar m\omega$

So, obviously you have gotten an answer with a shifted ground state. But, I believe the answer for $E_n$ should $n\hbar\omega$, with $n=1,2,\dots$. Note that, $n=0$ is no longer the ground state, since the energy would be zero for that, and we cannot have that (it would violate the uncertainty principle).

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.