I am confused about a method used in the following problem. There is an arrangement as shown below. The surface is smooth, and the pulleys are light. We have to find the acceleration $a_0$ of $m_1$.
The method I used to solve it was to consider the pulley B and masses $m_2$ and $m_3$ as a single system that goes down with the same acceleration as that of $m_1$. If this acceleration be $a_0$, then the equations of motion give $$a_0=\frac {m_2+m_3}{m_1+m_2+m_3}g$$
However, the textbook solution treats motions of all objects individually, where $m_1$ has an acceleration $a_0$, $m_2$ has an acceleration $a_0-a$ and $m_3$ has an acceleration $a_0+a$, all from the lab frame(inertial). The answer calculated thus does not match with mine. The texbook gives $$a_0=\frac {g}{1+ \frac {m_1(m_2+m_3)}{4m_2m_3}}$$
The question is, what is the problem with considering the pulley B and the masses $m_2$ and $m_3$ as a single system of mass $(m_2+m_3)$? Or do we have to take some precautions, when the system is accelerated? (The textbook solution is perfectly alright and I understood it too, but what is the problem with mine?)