Consider a system of particles with wave function $\psi$(x) (x can be understood to stand for all degrees of freedom of the system; so, if we have a system of two particles then x should represent {$x_1; y_1; z_1; x_2; y_2; z_2$}). The expectation value of an operator $\hat{A}$ that operates on is defined by : $$\langle\hat{A}\rangle = \int\psi^{*}\hat{A}\psi dx$$
Yup this makes sense to me and there's nothing new here.
If $\psi$ is an eigenfunction of $\hat{A}$ with eigenvalue $a$, then, assuming the wave function to be normalized, we have : $$⟨ \hat{A} ⟩ = a$$
This is where I want to confirm something.
$$\hat{A}\psi = a\psi$$
Hence, $$⟨ \hat{A} ⟩ =\int\psi^{*} a \psi dx$$
Since $a$ is a constant I can take it out :
$$\langle\hat{A}\rangle = a \int\psi^{*} \psi dx$$
We assumed that the wave function was normalized hence $$\int\psi^{*} \psi dx = 1$$
Leaving $$\langle\hat{A}\rangle = a$$
Now consider the rate of change of the expectation value of $\langle\hat{A}\rangle$:
$$\frac{d\langle\hat{A}\rangle}{dt} = \int{\frac{\partial}{\partial t}}(\psi^{*}\hat{A}\psi)dx$$
$$=\int{\frac{\partial \psi^{*}}{\partial t}\hat{A}\psi+\psi^{}\frac{\partial\hat{A}}{\partial t}\psi^{*}}+\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}\hat{A}\psi^{*} dx$$
$$=\int{\langle\frac{\partial\hat{A}}{\partial t}\rangle} +\frac{i}{\hbar}\int{[(\hat{H}\psi)^{*}\hat{A}\psi-\psi^{*}\hat{A}\hat{H}\psi]}dx$$
where we have used the Schrodinger equation :
$$i\hbar\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = \hat{H}\psi$$
The second line is easily obtained via differentiation. The second term in the second line corresponds to the first term in the third line, correct ?
I do not see how this term was obtained. In particular where the $\frac{i}{\hbar}$ originates from :
$$\frac{i}{\hbar}\int{[(\hat{H}\psi)^{*}\hat{A}\psi-\psi^{*}\hat{A}\hat{H}\psi]}$$
Please help me.
PS : Take it easy on me. QM in general is quite new to me.
$<\hat{A}>$=$a$
, simply use$\langle\hat{A}\rangle=a$
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