0
$\begingroup$

a
(source: gyazo.com)

Firstly, I determined the equation for the particles path for $k <-mV^2a^2$ as $u = {Ae^{\sqrt{\alpha}\theta}+Be^{-\sqrt{\alpha}\theta}}$ where $ \alpha = 1 + \dfrac{k}{mV^2a^2},$ $u = 1/r$

I have two questions;

(1) Could I solve for the constants $A,B$ with the information given? (It is not given that at r = a, $\theta = 0$, so I figured no)

(2) I'm not sure how to determine if the motion is bounded or unbounded in polar coordinates - For instance, if we were dealing with $r(t)$ then I'd take $t \to \infty$ and see what happens, but we have theta here, how can we deal with theta? In this case with $k <-mV^2a^2$ it is bounded (if we take $\theta \to \infty$)

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ The force field only depends on the radius and is radially directed. Therefore it has a potential. Does this help? $\endgroup$
    – Tobias
    Commented Mar 2, 2014 at 18:26
  • $\begingroup$ @tobias It does not - I'm not aware of the term potential, could you please explain? $\endgroup$
    – John
    Commented Mar 2, 2014 at 18:29
  • $\begingroup$ I explained it in my answer below. $\endgroup$
    – Tobias
    Commented Mar 2, 2014 at 19:12

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

You can solve for $A$ and $B$ by using $r(0) = a$, $\theta(0) = 0$ and evaluating $\dot{r}$ and $\dot{\theta}$ in your solution and using the initial conditions for velocity. You will need an equation for velocity as a vector in polar coordinates.

Furthermore, while you don't have $\theta(t)$ explicitly, it is a useful exercise to consider what happens to $u$ (or $r$) as $\theta$ varies over the whole range $(0 \dots 2\pi)$. If $u \to 0$ anywhere, then that would be an example of the particle escaping to infinity.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ where did you get $\theta(0) = 0$ from? $\endgroup$
    – John
    Commented Mar 2, 2014 at 19:17
  • $\begingroup$ You can choose $\theta(0) = 0$ because the "origin" in the angular coordinate is arbitrary. Not so for the radial coordinate, where it has physical meaning. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 3, 2014 at 20:41
1
$\begingroup$

Define the potential energy $$U(r) = -\int_{\infty}^r F(\bar r)\cdot(-d \bar r) = -\int_r^\infty F(\bar r)\cdot d \bar r$$ with the condition that it is zero at infinity.

If the initial overall energy of the particle $E_0 = U(a) + \frac m2 V^2$ is larger than zero the particle will escape. (The only exception is the case that $k<0$ and the path is directed towards the origin. In that case the solution breaks down in finite time.)


Note: In the above answer I assume that $V$ is really the velocity tangent to the particle path and not the velocity in angular direction.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.