please could someone check this MIT video (http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Lkuo6nZ6nZM) at 26mins 31secs. He says that if you threw a tomato on a bathroom scale then you would get a certain force indicated by the scales. He then says if you then use a bouncy ball instead of a tomato that the momentum change would be 2mv. He then says that the force on the scales would read double. This is where I am confused. Earlier in the video he had two balls of equal mass but one was elastic and one was inelastic. He said the momentum change of the elastic ball was 2mv but the force exerted on the floor was the same for both balls because the inelastic ball, although having half the momentum, had half the impact time giving rise to the same force. Therefore, he seems (from my point of view) to have contradicted himself with the tomato-scale situation. Wouldn't the bathroom scale read the same force because although the bouncy ball will have a momentum change of 2mv, the collision time will be twice as long as the impact time for the tomato and the scales?