Consider scattering some particles in a state collectively denoted by $i$ to a final state denote by $f$. The scattering amplitude, S-matrix is then defined by: $S_{fi}\equiv \langle f|e^{-iHt}|i\rangle$. We then separate the S-matrix into the identity and another part as $S_{fi}=\delta_{fi}+iT_{fi}$. The statement of unitarity is that $S^\dagger S=1$ which implies that $2{\rm Im}T=T^\dagger T$ which leads to the optical theorem and all that.
In field theory, what we calculate is the amplitude where we stick just $T$ between two states. That is, we only usually calculate the amplitudes where something interesting is happening.
In the study of effective field theories, I often see statements about the violation of unitarity which confuse me. For example, if we took a simple scalar field theory with a derivative interaction $\mathcal L=\frac{1}{2}(\partial\phi)^2+\lambda(\partial\phi)^4/\Lambda^4$ then we could calculate $2\to 2$ scattering and we'd find something like $\mathcal{M}_{2\to 2}\sim \lambda k^4/\Lambda^4$.
I've read and heard people say that for $k\gg \Lambda$, this leads to a violation of unitarity. I assume this means a violation of $2{\rm Im}T=T^\dagger T$. Why is this the case? Certainly the perturbative expansion breaks down in this regime but why is this connected to unitarity?
If the above example does violate unitarity, then what's the difference between the above and the case of a normal, non-derivative $\lambda\phi^4$ interaction and with $\lambda\gg 1$ the case above? The key thing seems to be that $\mathcal{M}$ gets really big in the derivative example, but this would also occur in $\lambda\phi^4$ and I would doubt that this latter theory has any violations of unitarity.