We know that the Reynolds Number is $R_e=\frac{\rho vd}{\eta}$ ($\rho$ density, $v$ velocity, $d$ diameter and $\eta$ the viscosity of fluid).
We also know that an ideal fluid has no viscosity which means that $\eta=0$ and what we get is $R_e=\frac{\rho vd}{0}$. Does this mean that the ideal fluid doesn't have a Reynolds Number?
In my book it says that every fluid has it's own Reynolds Number.
Can anybody help me?
Thank you!