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Consider the variational problem for a scalar field in Schwarzschild spacetime $M$ with respect to Eddington-Finkelstein coordinates $(v,r, \theta, \varphi)$, i.e.

$$\delta I(\phi) = \int_M dV \ \Big( \text{Euler-Lagrange-Eqs.} \Big) \ \delta \phi + \oint_{\partial M} dS \ n^{\mu} \partial_{\mu} \phi \ \delta \phi \overset{!}{=} 0.$$

The surface integral splits into two parts, one treating the "boundary" at spatial infinity (or rather the appropriate limit), and the other treating the boundary at the event horizon $r_S$. Assuming that the field falls fast enough when approaching spatial infinity, one is left with the requirement

$$\oint_{\partial M} dS \ n^{\mu} \partial_{\mu} \phi \ \delta \phi = 4 \pi \int_{v_1}^{v_2} dv \ r^2 \ n^{\mu} \partial_{\mu} \phi \ \delta \phi \ \Big|^{\infty}_{r_S} = \int_{v_1}^{v_2} dv \ r_S^2 \ \partial_{v} \phi \ \delta \phi \ \Big|_{r_S} \overset{!}{=} 0.$$

In order for this expression to vanish, one must have Dirichlet conditions at the event horizon. But from a physical perspective I see no reason for the need to prescribe ANY boundary condition on the event horizon surface, as the field is purely ingoing at this point and the event horizon cannot influence spacetime points in the exterior region by default. But the term must vanish so that the Euler-Lagrange equations exist.

Am I in error here in assuming the event horizon to be a boundary of the manifold; meaning the surface integral ONLY consists of the term at spatial infinity, since the manifold continues beyond the event horizon? Why do people then call it the "event horizon boundary"?


UPDATE:

I consulted with Eric Poisson's "A Relativist's Toolkit", Chapter 3 (Hypersurfaces), where he treats integration over null hypersurfaces. Defining the event horizon surface (EHS) as the set for which $f(r) \equiv r - r_S = 0$, he comes to the conclusion that the directed surface element on the EHS is

$$d\Sigma_{\mu} = - k_{\mu} \, \sqrt{\sigma} \; dv \, d\theta \, d\varphi$$

with $\sigma$ being the determinant of the induced metric on the EHS and

$$ k_{\mu} = - \partial_{\mu} f(r)$$

For the Schwarzschild case this means that

$$(d\Sigma_{\mu}) = (0, 1, 0, 0) \; r_S^2 \; dv \, d\theta \, d\varphi$$

So that the above integral originally in question is

$$\oint_{\partial M} d\Sigma_{\mu} \; g^{\mu \nu} \, \partial_{\nu} \phi \; \delta \phi = 4 \pi \int_{v_1}^{v_2} dv \; r_S^2 \, (g^{rv} \, \partial_{v} \phi + g^{rr} \, \partial_r \phi ) \; \delta \phi = 4 \pi \int_{v_1}^{v_2} dv \; r_S^2 \; \partial_{v} \phi \; \delta \phi$$

which is the result I have already obtained (note that above, I missed a $4\pi$ factor, but this is not relevant to the question). That means even though the fact, that the event horizon hypersurface is null, has been taken into account, this integral still does not vanish in an obvious way (which it must/should, if the Euler-Lagrange-Eqs shall exist).

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  • $\begingroup$ I believe we need to impose the conditions on the boundaries of the manifold, not the event horizon, so at spatial spacelike infinity, at timelike past and future infinities, and maybe at the central singularity (which is a manifold border). $\endgroup$
    – Cham
    Commented Aug 15 at 15:26
  • $\begingroup$ @Cham The existence of the inner singular spacetime past the horizon is a hypothetical extension of the Schwarzschild manifold beyond the eternity of the cosmological time of the universe. This extension also is unfalsifiable and in this sense unscientific. On top of this the radius of the horizon defined as the spacelike radial distance to the origin is zero. So the horizon indeed is a boundary of the physical spacetime manifold as far as the entire external universe is concerned and despite the boring “nothing special” propaganda. $\endgroup$
    – safesphere
    Commented Aug 16 at 4:28

1 Answer 1

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are you taking a 3+1 decomposition of Schwarzschild first? if so, you should provide the scheme/slicing you're using to do this.

If you are not, then it's very critically important to realize that the horizon is a null surface and conformal infinity is a timelike surface. Your boundary conditions are going to care a lot about whether the $n^{a}$ in some $n^{a}d_{a}\Omega$ term is timelike or null.

There is a bunch of subtle stuff you have to worry about if you are integrating over a null surface. In particular, the metric of a null surface is not an invertible matrix, which means that you lose the natural connection between $g_{ab}$ and $g^{ab}$ when integrating over the horizon, which then means you have no natural way of raising and lowering indices. There are ways around all of these things, but it requires care, and the solutions are not in standard textbooks (Hint: the induced geometry is the important thing here).

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  • $\begingroup$ Nice answer (+1) As you seem familiar with 3+1 decompositions, when 3+1 slicing the EFE directly, getting from one 3-dimensional slice $\Sigma_t$ to the next 3-dimensional slice $\Sigma_{t + 1}$ seems to leave $g_{\mu\nu | t + 1}$ underdetermined, would you agree? Then, how to solve $\Sigma_{t + 1}$ all the way down to each $g_{\mu\nu | t + 1}$ when time evolving a 3-dimensional slice $\Sigma_\tau \rightarrow \Sigma_{t + 1}$ directly on the EFE? $\endgroup$
    – James
    Commented Aug 15 at 23:20
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    $\begingroup$ @James: if you do a timelike 3+1 decomposition, typically, you have a free choice of the lapse function and shift vector, right? If you do that, then the 4-metric is directly expressible in terms of the 3-metric and those two quantities. You can then transform the Hilbert action into a Hamiltonian formulation of the time evolution of the 3-metric, with a canonical momentum relateable to the extrinsic curvature of the embedding into the 4-space, which then tells you how to connect the $\Sigma_{t}$ to the $\Sigma_{t + dt}$ $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 15 at 23:51
  • $\begingroup$ I was actually doing the 3+1 directly on the EFE (i.e. without transforming it into a hamiltonian form)... Suppose $R_{ij}-\frac{1}{2}g_{ij}R=T_{ij}$ is fully satisfied at $t=0$. For $t=1$, $T_{ij | t=1}$ is taken as external input from some matter theory, and we try to backsolve for $g_{ij | t = 1}$ from these new $T_{ij | t=1}$ constraints and the previously satisfied $g_{ij | t=0}$. It turns out that $g_{ij | t=1}$ seems underdetermined under these conditions. Do you think there is enough constraints in this type of time evolution to uniquely determine $g_{ij | t=1}$? $\endgroup$
    – James
    Commented Aug 16 at 0:44
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    $\begingroup$ @James: you have four constraints, and six components of the 3-metric, which leaves you two degrees of freedom. It's typical to attribute these to "the local amplitudes of gravitational radiation for the two dynamical polariazations of gravitational waves", which are not attributable to the matter distribution at that timeslice. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 16 at 20:11
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer, though I am afraid I do not fully understand it. What do you mean by „taking a 3+1 decomposition first“? Isnt the EF-chart a 3+1 decomposition of the spacetime? May I ask you to please take a look at the "Update" within my question? Moreover, what do you think about my original suggestion, that within the action principle one does not take the event horizon as a boundary of the manifold, as the very same extends beyond it. $\endgroup$
    – Octavius
    Commented Aug 19 at 16:02

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