I have a simple pendulum of length $l$,
(The string is massless)
What is its time period?
Simple, you say, it's $2 \pi \sqrt{(l/g)}$.
Are you sure about that?
Well, for a small angle that's true
Is it?
The limit as amplitude approaches $0$?
Sure that's better, but really is it? What if the ball of the pendulum wasn't a point mass?
Ah, got it, so let's go back to the derivation, the instantaneos axis of rotation of the Bob is fixed, and it's perpendicular to the plane of motion, through the hinge point The torque about that point is mg sin a (a being the angle of the massless string with the vertical at that time) and moment of inertial is $\frac{2}{5} m r^2 + ml^2$
Hmm?
$\frac{2}{5} m r^2 + m (l+r)^2$
That's better Now we can go on working through the details, but it's better to directly invoke the result $T = 2 \pi \sqrt{I/mgd}$ (I is moment of inetrial about hinge axis, d is distance of axis from COM) This is all fine, but there is a second derivation, often presented in a high school of the simple pendulum time period.
The one with tension?
Precisely, and my question is that when we do that, we don't get this corrected formula but rather just $2 \pi \sqrt {(l+r) /g}$
Really?
Yes, let me demonstrate, suppose at a time t the tension is the string is T and angle is a, clearly $T = mg\cos(a)$ And horizontal force on COM is directed towards the mean position and has value $T \sin(a) = mg \tan(a)$
$\tan(a)$, as $a\rightarrow 0$, is $\sin(a)$ which is $x/(l+r)$ where $x$ is $x$-displacement of COM (center of mass) from the mean. And we see this reduces to the standard differential equation of an SHM and we get the above mentioned result.
So, why do these $2$ methods give these different results?