Now before saying anything, I have seen the similar questions in this page regarding $\vec H$ but no one has fully convinced me yet, since I will try to give another perspective to this question.
We know that the total contribution to a magnetic field is $$\vec B_{total}=\vec B_{material}+\vec B_0$$ with $\vec B_{material}$ and $\vec B_0$ being the field magnetized in the material (like a cylinder or whatever figure with no field generated from itself) and the field generated in by a common source (like a magnet or a spiral) respectively. The topic of magnetic fields in the matter corresponds to $\vec B_{material}$ and the magnetic fields on the void corresponds to $\vec B_0$. But from the topic of magnetic fields in the matter, we know $$\vec B_{material}=\mu_0 (\vec H+\vec M)$$ which generates a huge doubt for me since I've always associated $\vec H$ with the "cause" of the $\vec B_{material}$ and $\vec M$ with the "consecuence" of the $\vec B_{material}$, but now we remember that for a $\vec B_{material}$ to exist, it has to be an original magnetic field that magnetizes the material, because by itself it is unable to generate such field, and I thought we associated that field to $\vec B_0$, but now I think about it and it could also be $\vec H$, isn't it? And the "response" of the material I thought it would be $\vec B_{material}$ but then again it could also be $\vec M$, since it is associated to the consecuence of a magnetic field, what's going on?
I think my head is too confused so maybe I contradicted myself a couple times but it just doesn't make sense to me intuitively what letter corresponds to what contribution.
And the whole thing can also be compared to the electric field, with $\vec E=\vec E_0+\vec E_{material}$, where we have $\vec D=\epsilon \vec E+\vec P$, what is the contribution to what or what is the response of the material to an external field? It's all very confusing.
EDITED PART FOR THE BOUNTY UPDATE: The comments here suggest that the $\vec B_0$ and $\vec B_m$ refer to the $\vec H$ and $\vec M$ and no more. But today, my teacher explained to us with the example of a problem that was like so and actually didn't agree with the comments here:
A sphere of radius R of a linear magnetic material of permeability $\mu$ is located in a region of empty space where a uniform magnetic field $B_0$ exists. a) Knowing that the magnetization that appears on the sphere is uniform, calculate $M$, the dipole moment induced in the sphere and the $B$ field at all points in space.
And my teacher did the following:
After finding the magnetic potential vector $\vec A$, we can find the $\vec B_m=\nabla\times \vec A=\frac 23 \mu_0 \vec M$, and since $\vec B_m=\mu_0(\vec H_m+\vec M)$ we get $$\vec H_m=\frac{\vec B_m}{\mu_0}-\vec M=-\frac{\vec M}{3}$$ we can find the total magnetic field by using the expression I was told in the comments to be untrue: $$\vec B_{total}=\vec B_0+\vec B_m=\mu \vec H_{total}$$ and since $\vec H_{total}=\vec H_m+\vec H_0$ and $\vec B_0=\mu_0 \vec H_0$ and finally we got earlier $\vec B_m=\frac 23 \mu_0 \vec M$ we can substitute and find $\vec M$: $$\vec M=\frac{3(\frac{\mu}{\mu_0}-1)\vec B_0}{2\mu_0+\mu}$$ Which again the result is irrelevant for my purposes, since I'm looking, again, to understand how there are so many different contributions that I've lost sense of what letter means what, I thought $\vec M$ was the magnetic field caused in the material as a response of an external field $\vec H$, but now it turns out we have $B_0$ and $B_m$, and I'm quite lost.