I was told today that the Polyakov action for a $p$-brane is (superficially) re-normalizable iff $p\leq 1$. Of course, when I went to check for myself, I screwed up my power-counting, and I'm having trouble seeing why.
We work in units with $c=1=\hbar$, so that $L=T=M^{-1}$. In these units, any action must have dimension $1$, so from looking at the Nambu-Goto action, $$ S_{\text{NG}}:=-T_p\int d\sigma ^{1+p}\sqrt{-g}, $$ we see that $[T_p]=L^{-(1+p)}=M^{1+p}$. From the Polyakov action, $$ S_{\text{P}}:=-\frac{T_p}{2}\int d\sigma ^{1+p}\sqrt{-h}h^{\alpha \beta}\partial _\alpha X^\mu \partial _\beta X^\nu G_{\mu \nu}(X), $$ we see that the the coupling constant of the interaction of of the scalar fields $X^\mu$ with $h_{\alpha \beta}$ is precisely $\frac{T_p}{2}$, which has dimensions $M^{1+p}$, and so is going to be (superficially) re-normalizable iff $1+p\geq 0$ . . . But this, of course, is not the result I was looking for . . . Where is my mistake?