My question is not referring to the fact that the harmonic oscillator (HO) is employed in a lot of physics models. For example, this question asks about the universality of HO's, and the answers focus on the fact that many potentials can be approximated by a HO term in their Taylor expansions.
What I want to know is why the mathematical form of the quantum harmonic oscillator (QHO) seems to be ubiquitous in quantum mechanics. Note that the QHO term in my examples are only formal, and do not actually represent any physical restoring force or potential.
Two vastly unrelated examples I came across are the following:
1. Landau levels
For a uniform magnetic field $\mathbf{B} = B_0\mathbf{\hat{z}}$, the corresponding magnetic vector potential is $$\mathbf{A} = \frac{B_0}{2}\left(-y\mathbf{\hat{x}}+x\mathbf{\hat{y}}\right).$$
Consider a particle with charge $q$ and mass $m$, and define the following variables: $$ P \equiv \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left[ \left(p_x+p_y\right) - \frac{qB_0}{2}\left(x-y\right) \right], \quad Q \equiv \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left[ \frac{1}{qB_0}\left(p_x-p_y\right) + \frac{1}{2}\left(x+y\right) \right]. $$
Then it can be checked that $P$ and $Q$ satisfy the canonical commutation relation: $$ \left[Q, P\right] = i\hbar. $$ So $P$ and $Q$ are formally momentum and position. Then we find that the Hamiltonian can be written as $$ \hat{H} = \frac{1}{2m}\left(\mathbf{p}-q\mathbf{A}\right)^2 = \frac{1}{2m}P^2 + \frac{1}{2}m\omega^2Q^2, $$ where $\omega$ is equal to $\frac{qB_0}{m}$.
The system is analogous to a QHO, with energy eigenvalues $E_n = \hbar\omega\left(n+\frac{1}{2}\right).$
2. Proof that orbital angular momenta do not have half-integer values
This proof has several appearances on PSE, e.g. here. I will provide my own brief summary. First we write the non-dimensionalised positions and momenta: $$ \xi_x = \sqrt{\frac{m\omega}{\hbar}}x, \quad \xi_y = \sqrt{\frac{m\omega}{\hbar}}y, \quad \pi_x = \frac{p_x}{\sqrt{m\omega\hbar}}, \quad \pi_y = \frac{p_y}{\sqrt{m\omega\hbar}}. $$ Then define $$ P_1 \equiv \frac{\pi_x-\xi_y}{\sqrt{2}}, \quad P_2 \equiv \frac{\pi_x+\xi_y}{\sqrt{2}}, \quad Q_1 \equiv \frac{\xi_x+\pi_y}{\sqrt{2}}, \quad Q_2 \equiv \frac{\xi_x-\pi_y}{\sqrt{2}}. $$
These $\left(P_i, Q_i\right)$ pairs also satisfy the canonical commutation relation, and the orbital angular momentum $L_z = xp_y-yp_x$ turns out to be $$ \frac{\hbar}{2}\left(Q_1^2 + P_1^2\right) - \frac{\hbar}{2}\left(Q_2^2 + P_2^2\right). $$ Which is again analogous to the QHO, so we can write $L_z$ in terms of the Hamiltonians: $$L_z = \frac{1}{\omega}\left(H_1-H_2\right) = \hbar\left(n_1-n_2\right) = \hbar m. $$
What's the significance behind the fact that the mathematical form of QHO keeps appearing in seemingly unrelated phenomena?
References:
- Griffiths - Introduction to Quantum Mechanics
- Ballentine - Quantum Mechanics