I am currently reading Sakurai's Modern Quantum Mechanics, and in the section on time dependent perturbation theory, he derives the first order coefficient for an energy state n at time t in the presence of an oscillating potential:
$$ c_n^{(1)} = \frac{1}{\hbar} \left [ \frac{1-e^{i(\omega+\omega_{ni})t}}{\omega+\omega_{ni}}V_{ni} + \frac{1-e^{i(\omega_{ni}-\omega)t}}{-\omega+\omega_{ni}}V^\dagger_{ni} \right] $$
And then he states that the transition probability $|c^{(1)}_n|^2$ is only appreciable if
$$ \omega_{ni} + \omega \approx 0 \quad \text{or} \quad E_n \approx E_i -\hbar\omega \\ \\ , \\ \\ \omega_{ni} - \omega \approx 0 \quad \text{or} \quad E_n \approx E_i +\hbar\omega $$
But I don't understand how he imposes these energy conditions. Just from the first formula, if it was true that $\omega_{ni} + \omega \approx 0$, couldn't it still be the case that Energy was gained by the system, and the state got boosted up an energy level?
Is he simply just manually imposing conservation of energy here? Or is there something I am missing?
Thanks.