I am trying to understand the Feynman rule for the 4-fermi interaction in the Gross-Neveu model. Based on this Peskin & Schroeder solution 12.2 and this and this Stack Exchange clarification, I have the 4-fermi term as
\begin{equation} \frac{1}{2}g^2 (\bar{\psi_i}\psi_i)^2 \end{equation}
where $i$ labels the species of fermions, 1 through $N$. The corresponding Feynman rule is
\begin{equation} ig^2(\delta_{ij}\delta_{kl}\delta_{\alpha\beta}\delta_{\gamma\delta}+\delta_{il}\delta_{jk}\delta_{\alpha\delta}\delta_{\gamma\beta}) \end{equation}
for the vertex labeled as follows:
I have three questions about this.
(1) I see that the two groups of delta functions comes from pairing each incoming arrow with each outgoing arrow. Why isn't there a relative sign that comes from permuting the $\psi$'s to make these different pairings?
(2) Why doesn't the factor of $1/2$ from the Lagrangian end up in the Feynman rule?
(3) It seems like these combinations of delta functions overcount some terms because they don't take into account fermi statistics. For example, say I chose the representation
\begin{equation} \gamma^0=\sigma_1, \gamma^1=i\sigma_2 \end{equation}
and then, for $N=1$ (dropping species subscripts), calculate
\begin{equation} (\bar{\psi}\psi)^2=\psi^{\dagger}\gamma^0\psi \psi^{\dagger}\gamma^0\psi = (\psi^2)^{*}\psi^1(\psi^2)^{*}\psi^1+(\psi^2)^{*}\psi^1(\psi^1)^{*}\psi^2+(\psi^1)^{*}\psi^2(\psi^2)^{*}\psi^1+(\psi^1)^{*}\psi^2(\psi^1)^{*}\psi^2 =2(\psi^1)^{*}\psi^2(\psi^2)^{*}\psi^1 \end{equation}
where the superscripts are spinor indices, and some terms are zero by fermi statistics. A term like this can certainly be produced by the Feynman rule above. But it appears as though the Feynman rule is making extra terms like $(\psi^1)^{*}\psi^1(\psi^1)^{*}\psi^1$. Shouldn't those be zero by fermi statistics? Is there something wrong with this Feynman rule?