The question comes from reading through either of these two papers:
https://doi.org/10.1103/PhysRevB.35.3629
https://arxiv.org/abs/1811.05886
The question is on the time dependence of a state like: $$|\psi\rangle = \sum_n c_n(t)|n\rangle,$$ where the states $|n\rangle$ are not Eigen states of the time independent Hamiltonian, i.e. they could be a state in a tight binding model where the n'th site is occupied. In the paper they state that it is an ansatz that the state satisfies the Schrödinger equation like $i\hbar \frac{d}{dt}|\psi\rangle = H|\psi\rangle$, but isn't the Schrödinger equation universally true in quantum mechanics no matter how you create your state? How am I supposed to understand this?
Also it made me question some basic things about time evolution, like how am I supposed to use the Schrödinger equation for this state that is not written in terms of basis states, as I can write: \begin{align} i\hbar \partial_t|\psi\rangle &= H|\psi\rangle \\ \Rightarrow i\hbar \sum_n \dot c_n|n\rangle+i\hbar\sum_n c_n \partial_t|n\rangle &= i\hbar\sum_n c_n H|n\rangle, \end{align} but from the Schrödinger equation I would just get $i\hbar \partial_t |n\rangle = H|n\rangle$ so the last term on the LHS and the RHS would cancel and leave me with $i\hbar \sum_n \dot c_n|n\rangle = 0$?