Consider a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis $\vec{OQ}=|\vec{OQ}|\hat{n}$ passing through two points $O$ and $Q$ in the body with a uniform angular velocity $\vec{\omega}=\omega\hat{n}$. With O as the origin of coordinates, the angular momentum about $O$ is $$\vec{L}=\sum_im_i\vec{r}_i\times(\vec{\omega}\times\vec{r}_i)=\sum_im_i[r_i^2\vec{\omega} -{\vec r}_i({\vec r}_i\cdot\vec{\omega})] \qquad\qquad (1)$$ where $\vec{r}_i$ is the position vector of any point in the body w.r.t O.
I think that this expression $(1)$ is valid both in the body-fixed coordinate system (say, $OX'Y'Z'$) as well as in the space-fixed coordinate system (say, $OXYZ$) with both of their origins at the common point O. But if we consider the body-frame, the components of the moment of inertia tensor $I_{ij}$'s will be independent of time since the coordinates of any point inside the body, does not change w.r.t time and if we consider the space-fixed frame, the components of the moment of inertia tensor $I_{ij}$'s will be time-dependent.
Since we write the moment of inertia tensor often with time-independent components, it means that we implicitly use the body-frame when we write $$\vec{L}=\stackrel{\leftrightarrow}{I}\vec{\omega}, ~ {\rm or}\quad L_i=I_{ij}\omega_j.$$ Am I right?