I think I have a confusion on some basics of quantum mechanics. To explain my problem I constructed this following simple example. Let's consider an infinite 1D system made by two sub lattices $A$ and $B$, with $a_{1}$,$a_{2}$ the two lattice lengths. In this system an electron can jump from one site to the other with probability amplitude given by the hopping parameters $t$ and $t^{'}$ as in the figure.
The corresponding tight binding Hamiltonian for an electron in the system (only first nearest neighbor hopping) is:
$\hat{H}=\sum_{<i,j>}t_{i,j}\cdot(|i\rangle \langle j|+|j\rangle \langle i|)=\sum_{i\in A}t^{'} (|i\rangle \langle i-a_{2}|)+t(|i\rangle \langle i+a_{1}|)+h.c.$
where by $|i\rangle $ I mean the i-th site position state.
Now, I want to build the matrix for H. To do that I choose to represent my wave function as a two component spinor where the two components correspond to the two sub lattices $A,B$:
$\psi(x)=\begin{pmatrix}\psi_{a}(x)\\\psi_{b}(x) \end{pmatrix}$.
So my basis would be a collection of spinors containing delta functions centered on each lattice site:
$\phi_{i,a}=\begin{pmatrix}\delta(x_{i})\\0 \end{pmatrix}$ and $\phi_{j,b}=\begin{pmatrix}0\\\delta(x_{j}) \end{pmatrix}$
where $i$ goes over all sites of the $A$ sub lattice and $j$ same for $B$.
Now comes my problem: let's say I want to calculate the matrix for $\hat{H}$ in momentum space. The system is translational invariant so I can just focus on the 2x2 block (corresponding to a given momentum $k$):
$h(k)=\begin{pmatrix} \langle k_{A}|\hat{H}|k_{A}\rangle & \langle k_{A}|\hat{H}|k_{B}\rangle \\ \langle k_{B}|\hat{H}|k_{A}\rangle & \langle k_{B}|\hat{H}|k_{B}\rangle \end{pmatrix} $
where by $|k_{A}\rangle$ I indicate a state in which the electron has momentum k and is completely delocalized on sub lattice $A$ (hence no amplitude on sub lattice B) and viceversa for $|k_{B}\rangle$ .
Now, I know that the non zero elements of the previous matrix should be the off-diagonal ones. But lets look at $\langle k_{A}|\hat{H}|k_{B}\rangle$:
$\langle k_{A}|\hat{H}|k_{B}\rangle=\sum_{i \in A}t^{'}\langle k_{A}|i\rangle \langle i-a_{2}|k_{B}\rangle+t\langle k_{A}|i\rangle \langle i+a_{1}|k_{B}\rangle$
Here is the crucial part:the term $\langle k_{A}|i\rangle $ is just (by definition) the conjugate wave function (written in real space) of a state with momentum k delocalized on sub lattice A.
So using the "spinor" basis I described above: $\langle k_{A}|i\rangle= \begin{pmatrix} e^{-ik r_{i}} \\0 \end{pmatrix}^{T}$.
By the same argument $\langle i-a_{2}|k_{B}\rangle=\begin{pmatrix} 0 \\e^{ik (r_{i}-a_{2})} \end{pmatrix}$.
But this would give me that the product $\langle k_{A}|i\rangle \langle i-a_{2}|k_{B}\rangle$ is zero (I just did the scalar product between the two previous spinors just like for vectors).
The same goes for the second term $\langle k_{A}|i\rangle \langle i+a_{1}|k_{B}\rangle$ hence that matrix element seems to be zero. If I argue similarly I get $0$ also for the other matrix elements, hence the entire Hamiltonian matrix is zero!
Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong here?