This question considers classical fluid mechanics, particularly the kinetic theory of gasses.
In the simple one-dimensional gravitational setting, a fluid is in hydrostatic equilibrium if $\frac{dP}{dh} = - \rho(h) g(h)$, where $h$ is the height, $P$ is the pressure, $\rho$ is the density, and $g$ is the gravitational acceleration field. More generally, a fluid is in hydrostatic equilibrium if the internal pressure-gradient forces balance out any external forces acting on the fluid. Note that this equation makes no reference to entropy, temperature, or any other statistical mechanics concepts.
The standard derivation of this equation starts out by assuming that the inward internal force per unit area on a fluid parcel at each side is given by by the pressure at that side. But I don't actually see why this would be true for an ideal (i.e. noninteracting) gas.
The paradigmatic explanation of buoyancy imagines immersing an impenetrable solid within a fluid. In this situation, it's very clear how the buoyancy works: at the molecular level, air molecules are continuously colliding elastically off the surface of the solid object and thereby transferring tiny amounts of momentum to it via contact forces. If one could track this process with microscopic resolution, then the net force on the solid object could be easily calculated by just tallying up the momenta transferred from each particle to each face of the object.
But the molecules in an ideal gas are noninteracting by definition, so it isn't clear to me why an ideal gas would "feel its own pressure" and redistribute accordingly. One possible explanation is that the pressure-gradient force is purely entropic and only emerges at the macro level. This question raises that possibility, but the one answer seems to disagree that the internal forces are indeed entropic. It seems odd to me that an entropic force would not contain any reference to temperature at all (although maybe the temperature is "hidden" in the relationship with the number density given by the ideal gas law $P = n T$).
To make things even more complicated, different fluids self-interact in qualitatively different ways. Ideal gas are non-interacting, real gasses are weakly (but not always neglibly) interacting, and liquids are quite strongly interacting (which leads to phenomena like incompressibility). So for liquids, there clearly are physical contact (as opposed to entropic) forces at the microscopic level. And yet, despite the pressure-gradient forces' very different origin, they apparently follow the exact same simple equation.
Anyway, I'll stop rambling and get to my two main questions:
A. Which of the following claims is the most accurate?
Even an ideal noninteracting gas under generic initial conditions would eventually reach hydrostatic equilibrium solely because of entropic pressure-gradient forces, as suggested by the other SE question. (An interesting corollary to this answer would be that the weight of the column of air above you doesn't really determine the pressure at ground level, like it would for a tall stack of bricks. Instead, entropy maximization leads to an interesting nonlocal perfect correlation between the (nonlocal) weight of the column of air and the (local) pressure at ground level.)
Ideal gasses aren't ergodic and would never reach hydrostatic equilibrium. The weak intermolecular interactions in a real gas are the sole cause of hydrostatic equilibration. The process of hydrostatic equilibration is conceptually separate from the process of thermal equilibration, and you don't need stat mech to understand it (e.g. it might occur on a completely different time scale than it takes for the fluid to reach a uniform temperature).
Real gasses reach hydrostatic equilibrium because of both entropic forces and microscopic-scale physical forces, which are of comparable conceptual importance. You can't understand this process without fundamentally incorporating stat mech concepts.
B. Is the answer to A the same for incompressible liquids like water, which are necessarily strongly interacting?
It seems strange to me that the same equation for hydrostatic equilibrium holds for both gasses and incompressible liquids, despite their qualitatively different microscopic self-interaction behavior.
This question about water is somewhat similar to mine, but mine focuses more on the gas case, which I find more confusing.