For a general time dependent Hamiltonian, if the Hamiltonian at two different times $t_1,\,t_2$ satisfies $$\left[ \hat{H}(t_1),\hat{H}(t_2) \right]=0,$$ then the time evolution operator is $\hat{U}(t)= \exp\left( \frac{-i}{\hbar}\int_0^{t} \hat{H}(\tau) d\tau \right).$
The following is the effective Hamiltonian of a composite system of a two level system and a harmonic oscillator in the interaction picture. Here $\hat{\sigma}_+= |e\rangle\langle g|$ and $\hat{\sigma}_-= |g\rangle\langle e|$ where $|g\rangle,|e\rangle$ are the ground and excited state of the two level system respectively.
\begin{equation*} \hat{H}_{\text{eff}}(t)= \frac{\hbar g}{2}(\hat{\sigma}_+ +\hat{\sigma}_-)\otimes(\hat{a} e^{-i\delta t} + \hat{a}^\dagger e^{i\delta t} ). \end{equation*} We now find $\left[ \hat{H}_{\text{eff}}(t_1),\hat{H}_{\text{eff}}(t_2) \right]\neq 0.$ \begin{equation} \left[ \hat{H}_{\text{eff}}(t_1),\hat{H}_{\text{eff}}(t_2) \right]= -i\frac{\hbar^2 g^2}{8}\sin(\delta(t_2-t_1))\hat{\mathbb{I}}_{2}\otimes\hat{\mathbb{I}}_{QHO} \end{equation}
In the paper I'm following, the author simply proceeds and obtains a result for time evolution as if this $\hat{U}(t)= \exp\left( \frac{-i}{\hbar}\int_0^{t} \hat{H}(\tau) d\tau \right)$ holds true.
My first question would be, is it possible to actually treat this Hamiltonian this way and simply exponentiate without timeordering? My answer based on standard QM knowledge through textbooks is no you cannot do that, cf. e.g. this Phys.SE.
I'm currently reading on how one treats Hamiltonians periodic in time but have not so far found that to give any credibility to simply integrating and exponentiating.
This Hamiltonian of interest is clearly time periodic with period $T=\frac{2\pi}{\delta}$.
Any help is appreciated.