Suppose you know nothing about CFT, and suppose you have found in (closed bosonic) String Theory that \begin{equation} [L_n , L_m ]=(n-m) L_{n+m} \;\;\;\;(\mathrm{"right"\;Witt\;Algebra}\; \mathfrak{w}_{R}) \\ \mathrm{same\;for}\;\bar{L}_n\\ [L_{n},\bar{L}_{m}]=0 \end{equation} Thus the complete Witt Algebra is \begin{equation} \mathfrak{W}=\mathfrak{w}_{R}\oplus \mathfrak{w}_{L} \end{equation} You can readily see that $L_{\{-1,0,1\}}$ is a closed subalgebra defined by \begin{equation} [L_1 , L_{-1} ]=2 L_{0}\\ [L_0 , L_1 ]=- L_{1}\\ [L_0 , L_{-1} ]= L_{-1}\\ \mathrm{same\;for}\;\bar{L}_{\{-1,0,1\}} \end{equation} Now, we know that $SL(n,\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{C})=\{M_{n\times n}(\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{C})\;\mathrm{such\;that}\; \det M=1\}$ and that its Lie Algeabra is $\mathfrak{sl}(n,\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{C})=\{X_{n\times n}\;\mathrm{such\;that}\;$Tr(X)$=0\}$. In the case $n=2$, we can write simply a general matrix in $\mathfrak{sl}(n,\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{C})$ and (after a bit of work to write it in a smart way) a basis as \begin{equation} A=\begin{pmatrix} -a & b \\ -c & a \end{pmatrix}\;\;\;\;\mathfrak{sl}(n,\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{C})=\bigg\{ e_{-1}=\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 0 \\ -1 & 0 \end{pmatrix},\; e_{0}=\frac{1}{2}\begin{pmatrix} -1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix},\; e_{1}=\begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\bigg\} \end{equation} You can see that, for $i,j=\{-1,0,1\}$, \begin{equation} [e_{i},e_{j}]=(i-j)e_{i+j} \end{equation}
Question 1 How can I understand if this last commutator provides an isomorphism between $\mathfrak{w}$-$\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{R})$ OR $\mathfrak{w}$-$\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{C})$? Polchinski (pag.56 of the first volume) seems to say $\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{R})$ (even if it is not true for me that $\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{R})$ differs from $\mathfrak{su}(2)$ only for signs.)
Question 2 I have read everywhere that the full $\mathfrak{W}$ is isomorphic ($\sim$) to $\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{C})$. How can this possible? If the answer to quest.1 is "$\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{R})$", then I would find $\mathfrak{W}\sim \mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{R}) \oplus \mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{R})$. This, however, is not $\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{C})$, because \begin{equation} \mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{C})\sim\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{R})_{\mathbb{C}}=\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{R})\oplus i \mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{R}) \end{equation} If the answer is instead "$\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{C})$", the full $\mathfrak{W}$ is isomorphic to two copies of $\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{C})$.
Question 3 (remember you know nothing about CFT, where I know how to answer to the following question). To be precise, the Witt "group" $W$ (restricted to $\{-1,0,1\}$) is \begin{equation} W|_{\{-1,0,1\}}\sim\frac{SL(2,\mathbb{C})}{\mathbb{Z}_{2}}\equiv PSL(2,\mathbb{C})\sim SO(1,3) \end{equation} How to see this in this context? Where does it enter $\mathbb{Z}_{2}$?
Question 4 Now you know CFT. In (2d) CFT, where $L_n \sim \partial_{z}$ I would say that with $L_{-1},\;L_0,\;L_1$ I can construct all the transformation \begin{equation} z\longrightarrow z'=\frac{az-b}{cz+d},\;\;\;\; ad-bc=1,\;\;\; (a,b,c,d)\;in\;\mathbb{C} \end{equation} This is exactly $PSL(2,\mathbb{C})$. However we have also the transformation of $\bar z$, given by $\bar L$. So it seems that the 2-dimensional conformal "group" is $PSL(2,\mathbb{C})_{L}\times PSL(2,\mathbb{C})_{R}$. However, at the very end of the day, $\bar z =z*$, so the second part of the product $\times$ is "false", and the group is only $PSL(2,\mathbb{C})$, with only one factor (as is confirmed in "Blumenhagen, Lust, Theisen: Basic Concepts of String Theory, pag.72"). How to deal with this if the answer in (2) is $\mathfrak{sl}(2,\mathbb{C})$? How to treat all this stuff?
Sorry for this tedious question; I would really appreciate a pedantic answer, or corrections to my hypothesis.