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The value of $\gamma$ that I will use is

$$\gamma=\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}$$

And length contraction is

$$L_0=\frac{L}{\gamma}$$

Where all variables have usual meaning.

Let the gravitational pull on Mercury due to Sun be

$$F=G\frac{M_s M_m}{r^2}$$

Based on above formula, if we calculate precession of the perihelion of Mercury, the value is less by about 43 seconds of arc per century. That missing value comes from relativity effects.

My thinking is that the Newtonian gravity formula underestimates the value of Gravitational force of Sun on Mercury and that is why the precession of the perihelion is less.

So, I try to substitute length contraction formula in Newtonian gravity to "somehow account for relativity effects" i.e.

$$F=G\frac{M_s M_m \gamma^2}{r^2}$$

But since $\gamma \leq 1$ for $v\leq c$, the modified Newtonian gravity formula gives reduced value of gravitational force of Sun on Mercury.

So, my question is:

  1. Is the gravitational force of Sun on Mercury due to relativistic effect less than the value obtained from Newton formula?

  2. How to properly substitute length contraction in Newton formula?

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  • $\begingroup$ " Based on above formula, if we calculate precession of the perihelion of Mercury, the value is less by about 43 seconds of arc per century " I do not think that is how the precession of mercury is calculated. Can you show, how based on THOSE formula, the calculations give the precession $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 7, 2021 at 8:31
  • $\begingroup$ @silverrahul I mean if the value calculated using Newtonian gravity. $\endgroup$
    – user146021
    Commented Aug 7, 2021 at 8:39

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You are right when you say that the Newtonian formula somehow underestimates the gravitational field of the Sun, but this fact is not explained by a special relativistic effect (length contraction) but by general relativity. Two intuitive (but not rigorous) ways to understand this are:

  1. In GR everything that has energy generates a gravitational field. Gravitational field itself carries energy (like with gravitational waves), therefore it generates additional gravitational field. Near the Sun there is thus the field generated by the mass of the Sun plus a small additional field generated by the field itself. This can also be seen as the reason why GR is nonlinear and so complicated.
  2. In GR, time slows down near a massive body. This means that if you measure the velocity of an object orbiting close to the Sun, you would see that it is a bit slower than what predicted by Newton. The extreme case of this is when something is falling into a black hole and you see it slowing down indefinitely when it approaches the horizon. Coming back to Mercury, if it slows down when it passes near the Sun, it means that it spends more time in the part of the orbit where the Sun's attraction is greater. The Sun has more time to pull it towards itself.

Apart from this, you cannot apply the length contraction to $r$. Length contracts only in the direction of motion, while $r$ is almost orthogonal to the velocity.

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Overview

The precession arises from the curvature of spacetime, not from a special relativistic length contraction. The first hint that the precession cannot be from special relativity (SR) is that in SR length contraction is parallel to the direction of motion but in this case, the separation used in Newtonian gravity is perpendicular to the direction of motion. In actuality, the precession arises from the curvature of space in the radial direction - below this is proved.

Proof

For a Schwarzchild spacetime the metric is:

$$g_{\mu\nu}=\operatorname{diagonal}\left(\begin{matrix}\left(1-\frac{2\mu}{r}\right)c^2,&-\left(1-\frac{2\mu}{r}c^2\right)^{-1},&-r^2,&-r^2sin^2\left(\theta\right)\end{matrix}\right)$$

where $\mu=\frac{GM}{c^2}$

working in the coordinates $x^\mu=\left(t,r,\theta,\phi\right)$

Due to the spherical symmetry, we need only consider orbits of $\theta=\frac{\pi}{2}$. Thus, the metric reduces to only a function of $r$.

Geodesics with affine parameterization $\lambda$ satisfy the Lagrangian:

$$L=g_{\mu\nu}\dot x^\mu\dot x^\nu$$

Thus, using the Euler-Lagrange equations we find:

$$\begin{align}\frac{\partial L}{\partial x^\rho}&=\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}\lambda}\frac{\partial L}{\partial\dot x^\rho}\\\implies\frac{\partial g_{\mu\nu}}{\partial x^\rho}\dot x^\mu\dot x^\nu&=\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}\lambda}\left[g_{\mu\nu}\left(\delta^\mu_\rho\dot x^\nu+\delta^\nu_\rho\dot x^\mu\right)\right]\end{align}$$

As the metric is diagonal and only depends on $r$: then for $\rho\ne1$:

$$\begin{align}0&=\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}\lambda}\left[g_{\rho\rho}\dot x^\rho\right]\\\implies g_{\rho\rho}\dot x^\rho&=p_\rho\end{align}$$

where $p_0\equiv k,p_2=0,p_3\equiv h$ are constants and do not form a tensor

$$L=\frac{k}{g_{00}}+g_{11}\dot r^2+\frac{p_3}{g_{33}}$$

Using the explicit form for $\frac{p_3}{g_{33}}=\frac{h}{r^2}$ then $\dot r=-h\frac{\text{d}u}{\text{d}{\phi}}$ where $u=\frac{1}{r}$ and so:

$$\begin{align}L&=\frac{k}{g_{00}}+h^2g_{11}\left(\frac{\text{d}u}{\text{d}\phi}\right)^2+hu^2\\\implies\frac{L}{h^2g_{11}}&=\frac{k}{h^2g_{00}g_{11}}+\left(\frac{\text{d}u}{\text{d}\phi}\right)^2+\frac{u^2}{hg_{11}}\end{align}$$

Differentiating with respect to $\phi$ gives:

$$\begin{align}\frac{L}{h^2}\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}\phi}\frac{1}{g_{11}}&=\frac{k}{h^2}\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}\phi}\frac{1}{g_{00}g_{11}}+2\frac{\text{d}u}{\text{d}\phi}\frac{\text{d}^2u}{\text{d}\phi^2}+\frac{2u}{hg_{11}}\frac{\text{d}u}{\text{d}\phi}+\frac{u^2}{h}\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}\phi}\frac{1}{g_{11}}\\\implies\frac{L}{h^2}\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}u}\frac{1}{g_{11}}&=\frac{k}{h^2}\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}u}\frac{1}{g_{00}g_{11}}+2\frac{\text{d}^2u}{\text{d}\phi^2}+\frac{2u}{hg_{11}}+\frac{u^2}{h}\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}u}\frac{1}{g_{11}}\end{align}$$

$$\implies\frac{\text{d}^2u}{\text{d}\phi^2}+\underbrace{\frac{2u}{hg_{11}}+\frac{u^2}{h}\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}u}\frac{1}{g_{11}}}_{=u-3\mu u^2}=\underbrace{\frac{L}{2h^2}\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}u}\frac{1}{g_{11}}}_{=\frac{GM}{h^2}}-\underbrace{\frac{k}{2h^2}\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d}u}\frac{1}{g_{00}g_{11}}}_{=0}\tag{1}$$

Thus we get the differential equation:

$$\frac{\text{d}^2u}{\text{d}\phi^2}+u-3\mu u^2=\frac{GM}{h^2}\tag{2}$$

The Newtonian equation is:

$$\frac{\text{d}^2u}{\text{d}\phi^2}+u=\frac{GM}{h^2}$$

And so we can see the additional term that leads to precession is $-3\mu u^2$ which we can see, from inspecting equation (1), arises non-zero $\mu$ in the $g_{11}$ component of the metric. Additionally, note how the time component of the metric is such that it cancels with the radial component of the metric so there are no additional terms in the equation; thus, in a sense, the time component contributes to cancelling any additional effects but not to the precession.

The angular coordinates have the same metric components as Euclidean space due to isotropy and so would not be expected to affect the shape equation.

Modified Force

Now let's consider from a classical perspective what force would give rise to this orbit. Starting from conservation of energy:

$$\begin{align}E&=\frac{1}{2}m\left(\dot r^2+r^2\dot\phi^2\right)+V\left(r\right)\\\implies E&=\frac{1}{2}mh^2\left(\left(\frac{\text{d}u}{\text{d}\phi}\right)^2+u^2\right)+V\left(r\right)\end{align}$$

Using the same definitions of $u$ and $h$ as above. Now differentiating with respect to $\phi$ gives:

$$\frac{\text{d}^2u}{\text{d}\phi^2}+u=-\frac{1}{mh^2}\frac{\text{d}V}{\text{d}u}$$

Now as $F=-\frac{\text{d}V}{\text{d}r}$ then we get:

$$\frac{\text{d}^2u}{\text{d}\phi^2}+u=-\frac{F}{mh^2u^2}$$

Comparing this to equation (2) we can see to get the precession predicted by general relativity one would need the force law to be:

$$F=-\frac{GMm}{r^2}\left(1+\frac{3h^2}{c^2r^2}\right)$$

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  • $\begingroup$ aapt.scitation.org/doi/pdf/10.1119/1.17174 This is an easier version of the proof. The derivation is similar to Newton but they used time and length contraction values to arrive at extra value of precession. $\endgroup$
    – user146021
    Commented Aug 7, 2021 at 10:06
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry, this paper is behind a paywall so I don't have access. However, you only get Newtonian gravity as an approximation when taking the weak field limit of GR. In this case, this is clear because as $\mu\to0$ then the Newtonian and GR equations become equivalent. Because Newtonian gravity is the limit of GR then information from the equations is lost in this limit so going back the other way is just luck if it works. Finally, as outlined in my interpretation section you really should not expect time dilation to lead to precession. $\endgroup$
    – Chris Long
    Commented Aug 7, 2021 at 10:11
  • $\begingroup$ youtu.be/Z91Cqns4pPk This is the video version of same paper. $\endgroup$
    – user146021
    Commented Aug 7, 2021 at 10:15
  • $\begingroup$ This video never mentions special relativity and so is not based on time and length contravtions but uses the spacetime curvature represented as metric coefficients as in my answer. It follows a different route which obscures the origin of the the precession but in doing so gives a more elegant route. My answer is not attempting to be elegant but instead show the physical source of the precession. $\endgroup$
    – Chris Long
    Commented Aug 7, 2021 at 10:40
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, of course. The coefficients used in paper are spacetime curvatures for GR but they serve the same purpose as time dilation and length contraction in SR, right? So, if I take appropriate value of coefficients and plug them in Newtonian gravity, how would the modified formula look? $\endgroup$
    – user146021
    Commented Aug 7, 2021 at 11:01

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