I have done lots of algebra working for this, but I've decided to not include it because I would prefer an explanation in words. There are some questions on here similar to this, but please may I ask that you make sure they address the exact doubt here before marking as a duplicate.
Suppose I have (uniform) ball rolling on a rough surface with backspin, where we model friction with a coefficient of sliding friction $\mu$. The friction will produce a forward angular rotation(i.e. the initial backspin decreases as the ball rolls). We can choose the spin to be large enough such that when the translation velocity is zero(i.e. translation KE lost to friction), the angular velocity is nonzero. I would like to know what happens at this instant. Does friction point towards or away from the initial position? I am told that it will begin moving towards its initial position, but I don't understand how this can happen as friction will be pointing in the same direction as velocity.
My thoughts where that it would come to rest, and perhaps spin on the spot for a second or two, but some other neglected force of rotational friction will stop it. However, after reading this thread, where a live experiment is suggested(basically do the same thing with a hula hoop), it did return instead of going to rest.
It is also said in the linked thread that the backspin determines the direction of friction, not the velocity, which is new to me ..