it's literally days I'm struggling with apparently simple problems concerning $\phi^4$ theory. I think the main issues are 2, that appear to me related one to another
- Is this type of field actually a field?
I know it may seem as a silly question, but for how I learned QFT a field state is a carrier space of an irreducible unitary realization of the Poincaré group: this ultimately means that a field can be only separated in modes on the mass-shell and the fact that every interacting field is not on the mass-shell anymore, despite for $t=\pm\infty$, really confuses me.
- Why in the interaction term of the hamiltonian operator do we encounter the free field?
In fact $\hat{H}=\hat{H}_0+\delta\hat{H}$ where the hamiltonian density change is $\delta\hat{\mathscr{H}}=\lambda\phi^4/4!$ and the field is the free one! I really can't go over this, because doing all the derivation from the Heisenberg picture to the interaction one doesn't seem that way at all; in fact, just reporting the main results, we should have $$ \hat{\phi}_{\text{H}}(t,\boldsymbol{r}) = \mathcal{U}^\dagger(t,\tilde{t}) \hat{\phi}_{\text{I}}(t,\boldsymbol{r}) \mathcal{U}(t,\tilde{t}) \\ \mathcal{U}(t,\tilde{t}) = T\left( \exp\left( -\frac{i}{\hbar}\int_{\tilde{t}}^t \text{d}{\underline{t}}\, e^{\frac{i}{\hbar}\hat{H}_0(\underline{t}-\tilde{t})} \delta\hat{H}(\underline{t}) e^{-\frac{i}{\hbar}\hat{H}_0(\underline{t}-\tilde{t})} \right)\right) $$ where $\tilde{t}$ is defined such that $\hat{\phi}_{\text{H}}(\tilde{t},\boldsymbol{r})=\hat{\phi}_{\text{I}}(\tilde{t},\boldsymbol{r})$. In other words how is possible that the fourth power of the field carried by the term $$ e^{\frac{i}{\hbar}\hat{H}_0(\underline{t}-\tilde{t})} \delta\hat{H}(\underline{t}) e^{-\frac{i}{\hbar}\hat{H}_0(\underline{t}-\tilde{t})} $$ is the fourth power of the free field? Thank you in advance.