The first law of Gay-Lussac, also called first law - Gay-Lussac, known abroad as Charles law or as Charles - Volta - Gay-Lussac law, at the constant pressure, the volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
Indicating with $V_{0}$ the volume of a fixed quantity of gas at the temperature of $0\,°C$ and with $V$ its volume at the temperature $t$ (measured in degrees Celsius), the law is expressed mathematically by the relation:
$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #09C5A3]{V=V_{0}(1+\alpha t)} \iff \bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C509A6 ]{V=V_0\alpha \Biggl(\frac{1}{\alpha} +t\Biggr)} \tag 1$$
If I use
$$T=t+\frac{1}{\alpha}$$ where $T$ it is the Kelvin temperature and $t$ in Celsius degree, I have
$$V=V_0\alpha T$$
The law says that an ideal gas has zero volume at temperature $T=0\, \mathrm{K}$ hence:
$$t=-\frac{1}{\alpha}=-273.15\, °C \iff \alpha=\frac1{273.15}\;^{\circ}C^{-1}$$
My question:
If in the $(1)$, $\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #09C5A3]{V=V_{0}(1+\alpha t)}$ I wrote,
$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #56D24C]{V=V_{0}(1+\alpha \color{red}{\Delta t})}$$ in Celsius degree the variation of temperature $\Delta t$ or equivalently
$$\bbox[5px,border:2px solid #C70039]{V=V_{0}(1+\alpha \color{blue}{\Delta T})}$$ in Kelvin degree $\Delta T$,
would it change anything, where $t$ ($T$) is the final temperature and $t_0$ ($T_0$) is the initial temperature remembering that $\Delta t=\Delta T$?