We saw in class that the Wigner-Eckart theorem is,
$$ \langle \alpha', j',m'|T^{(k)}_{q}|\alpha, j, m \rangle = \langle j,k;m,q|j',m'\rangle \frac{\langle \alpha', j'||T^{(k)}||\alpha, j \rangle}{\sqrt{2j + 1}} $$
In the context of the perturbation theroy, if we consider a perturbation of the Hamiltonian,
$$ \Delta V = eEz $$
For the hydrogen atom inside an electric field along $z$, neglecting the spin of the electron, we saw that we could write the spherical tensor as $$ T^{(k)}_{q} = T^{(1)}_0 = eEz $$ I was wondering, how can we know that $q$ here is equals to $0$ ? It's maybe obvious but I'm a little bit lost about this spherical tensor and Wigner-Eckart Theorem.