I have some questions about normal ordering in quantum field theory: I already read this very good question with very very good answers and this other question with other very good answers (I read also this one and many others, but without understanding much).
For what I understood, normal ordering is more a simbolic operation than an operator, so if for example I have \begin{equation*} \left[\hat{a},\hat{a}^\dagger\right] = 1 \end{equation*} Then I'm not authorized to say that $:\hat{a}\hat{a}^\dagger:=:\hat{a}^\dagger\hat{a}:+:1:$ (where I think that $:1:=1$ demonstrated through unitary operators). What I don't understand here is
The main fact is that this operation is non-linear? So (even if here the answer from Sebastiano Peotta seems to say the opposite) \begin{equation*} :\hat{a}^\dagger\hat{a}:+:1: \neq :\hat{a}^\dagger\hat{a}+1: \,? \end{equation*}
Or the main fact is that this operation doesn't care about operatorial equalities? In that case I would just have \begin{equation*} :\hat{a}\hat{a}^\dagger: \neq :\hat{a}^\dagger\hat{a}+1: \,? \end{equation*}
At the same time I wasn't able to find this kind of question, that is the main doubt that I have:
- what if I rename the operator with the following substitution $\hat{b}^\dagger=\hat{a}$? In that case $:\hat{a}\hat{a}^\dagger:=\hat{a}^\dagger\hat{a}$, but $:\hat{b}^\dagger\hat{b}:=\hat{b}^\dagger\hat{b}=\hat{a}\hat{a}^\dagger$!
Is this crazy or am I doing something wrong (very likely)?