0
$\begingroup$

I am struggling to understand a problem I was given. The problem is as follows:

$ {}$

Show that if the metric does not explicitly depend upon a coordinate (e.g. $x^1$) then the term $g(\dot{x}, \partial_1)$ is constant along every geodesic.

${}$

The thing is, I am not sure how to interpret $g(\dot{x}, \partial_1)$, since $\dot{x}$ is a vector, whereas $\partial_1$ is not (since $\partial_j$ would be the gradient, i suppose $\partial_1$ is just one component).

Furthermore, how do I prove this? What I have so far and seems promising but the last step is missing:

Considering Euler-Lagrange Equations for the Lagrange function $L = \tfrac{1}{2} g_{ab} \dot{x}^a \dot{x}^b$ we can conclude:

$\partial_1 L = 0$

and therefore

$\frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}^1} = 0 \quad \Longrightarrow \quad \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}^1} = \text{const.} = g_{i1} \dot{x}^i$

Any ideas on how to complete this?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

In differential geometry $\partial_i$ is usually tangent vector (or vector field) to the coordinate curve of $i$-th coordinate. The curve is given by the parametric equations: $$x^j(t)=x_0^j+\delta^j_i t$$ so the vector $\partial_1$ has components $\delta^j_1.$

The completion is by using the fact that $$ g(\dot{x},\partial_1)=g_{ij}\dot{x}^i\delta_1^j=g_{i1}\dot{x}^i $$

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.