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In Kittel's Solid state physics, on page 171. He claimes

If one particular wavevector $k$ is contained in a $\psi$, then all other wavevectors in the Fourier expansion of this $\psi$ will have the form $k+G$, where $G$ is any reciprocal lattice vector.

He then continues with stating that a wavefunction labeled as $\psi_k$ may equally well be labeled as $\psi_{k+G}$ because if $k$ enters in the Fourier expansion, then $k+G$ may enter.

I am really wondering what is the proper argument for justifying this. Although I may have overlooked it when reading the text, I cannot find a good explaination.

His first statement is that $$ \psi = \sum_{k} C(k) e^{ikx},$$ but after discussing that all wavevectors have the form $k+G$, and deriving the central equation, he is able to rewrite this into $$ \psi_k = \sum_{G} C(k-G) e^{i(k-G)x} = \left( \sum_{G} C(k-G) e^{-iGx} \right) e^{ikx}, $$

which proves Bloch's theorem. Justifying the quoted claim therefore seems essential to proving the desired result. If this is not the case, I don't think I see the connection between the first and second expression for $\psi$ and would really like a explaination of the two expressions and their relation.

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    $\begingroup$ In the current notation the first and the second equations are not really for the same quantity ($\psi$ vs. $\psi_k$). I do share your pain - Kittel is notoriously hard to follow. However, in my experience, his derivations are usually correct... after long reflection. $\endgroup$
    – Roger V.
    Commented Mar 26, 2020 at 9:10
  • $\begingroup$ Not an answer to your specific question, but I like the following intuitive picture of why the Bloch equation makes sense. A crystal has translational symmetry along any lattice vector. Thus, any observable within the crystal must have the same symmetry. As this also holds for the electron density, the magnitude of the electron wavefunction must have the lattice symmetry. Thus, under translation along a lattice vector, the wavefunction itself is constant except for an optional phase difference, which is Bloch's theorem. $\endgroup$
    – Jeff
    Commented Mar 26, 2020 at 11:20
  • $\begingroup$ You might find of interest this answer of mine to a similar question (from another book, though). $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 26, 2020 at 13:44
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    $\begingroup$ Hate to be a pedant, but the linked question (and the answer provided) is specifically about how to get the Central equation by plugging $\psi$ into the wave equation. Different from OP's question which (1) About the way this is described in a specific book and (2) whether the quoted statement needs to be justified in order to prove Bloch theorem. I would say that these are different questions $\endgroup$
    – insomniac
    Commented Mar 26, 2020 at 18:15
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    $\begingroup$ So, linking the other question is absolutely kosher (in fact, desirable ; afterall, we want any future student who chances on one of these questions to be exposed to both, and as many other complete answers on related things as possible) But closure seems not to make sense to me. $\endgroup$
    – insomniac
    Commented Mar 26, 2020 at 18:17

1 Answer 1

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"...Justifying the quoted claim therefore seems essential to proving the desired result..."

quoted claim : "Not all wavevectors of the set $2\pi m/L$ enter the Fourier expansion of any one Bloch function. If one particular wavevector k is contained in a $\psi$, then all other wavevectors in the Fourier expansion of this $\psi$ will have the form k + G, where G is any reciprocal lattice vector. We prove this result in (29) below"

TL;DR: As you can see, Kittel explicitly says that he is going to prove the quoted claim. The "claim" is a consequence of what follows, not a prerequisite. But I agree, the wording is poor.

Long Version: The aim of this exercise is to find the form of eigenstates of the Hamiltonian, which has the form:

$\psi = \sum_{k} C_k e^{ikx}$ ; (eq (25)) ; $k = \frac{2\pi m}{L}$ , where $m$ $\epsilon$ $\mathbb{Z}$, and $L$ is the length of the crystal.

The sum over $k$ is not constrained to be in a single Brillouin Zone (covers all $m$ $\epsilon$ $\mathbb{Z}$).

Now, by explicitly plugging this into the wave equation for the periodic potential given as $U(x) = \sum_{G}U_Ge^{iGx}$ (sum over reciprocal lattice vectors $G$) we get to what he calls the Central equation (the eigenvalue equation), given as (eq(27)) :

$(\frac{(\hbar k)^2}{2m}-\epsilon)C_k = \sum_G U_G C_{k-G}$

The form of the above eigenvalue equation tells us that for any eigenstate,the presence of $U_G$'s mixes the $C$'s for $k$'s related by lattice translations. That is, $(I)$ for any solution of the above eigenvalue equation corresponding to some $k$, it is not just a single $C_k$ that is nonzero, but (potentially) all $C_{k-G}$.

We can also see that $(II)$ no eigensolution will have $C_k \neq 0$ and $C_{k'} \neq 0$ for $k \neq k' (mod G)$. So, the eigenstates only mix up $C_k$'s separated by reciprocal lattice vectors, and nothing else.

Note: $(I)$ and $(II)$ together constitute what Kittel is claiming. As you can see, these statements are merely a consequence of the form taken by the above eigenvalue equation.

Using these two observations, we are in a position to state Bloch's theorem : any eigenstate of the lattice Hamiltonian must be of form $\psi_k = \sum_G C_{k+G}e^{i(G+k)x}$ . Rearranging, we can write $\psi_k = u_k e^{ikx}$, where $u_k$ is periodic with the periodicity of the lattice.

Now, the part about the restriction to a single BZ. We have motivated that every solution of the above eigenvalue equation will obey property $(I)$.The implication is that we must label all eigensolutions referring to a single BZ (usually taken to be the first , $BZ_1$). There is no logical basis in assigning $k$ to one of the solutions, and $k-G$ to another, etc., as both solutions will have both $C_k \neq 0$ and $C_{k-G} \neq 0$.

However, we must still accommodate for the fact that we are not going to get a single solution for any given $k$, there are going to be multiple ; these different solutions corresponding to the same $k $ $\epsilon $ $BZ_1$ are said to belong to different bands. Therefore, to completely characterize the eigenstates of the Hamiltonian, we need another index, the Band index.

Finally, there is really a much simpler way to see all this:.

Consider the Hamiltonian of the system $\hat{H}$. The fact that we are on a lattice implies that $\hat{H}$ commutes with the lattice translation operator $\hat{T}(na)$, where $a$ is the lattice constant, and $n$ $\epsilon$ $\mathbb{Z}$. This lattice translation operator is generated by Crystal momentum $\hat{P}$ ; $\hat{T}(n) = e^{i\hat{P}na}$. We can see that same lattice translation is generated if we replace $\hat{P}$ by $\hat{P} + G$ for some reciprocal lattice vector $G = \frac{2\pi m}{a}$, that is, crystal momentum (by virtue of the fact that it is only required to perform lattice translations) is defined modulo the reciprocal lattice , ie, defined to have eigenvalues in one $BZ$ only.

We can write $[\hat{T}(n),\hat{H}] = 0$ $ \forall$ $n$ , which implies that $[\hat{P},\hat{H}] = 0$. That is, there exists simultaneous eigenstates of $\hat{P}$ and $H$ , $\psi_k$.

To see that these are indeed in the Bloch form, note that $\hat{P} \psi_k = k\psi_k$ implies that : $\left<r|\hat{T}(n)|\psi_k(r)\right> = e^{inak} \psi_k(r) = \psi_k(r+na) $ $\forall n$

Now, we define $u_k \equiv \psi_k e^{-ikr}$ . We can see that $u_k(r+na) = \psi_k(r+na) e^{-ik(r+na)} = \psi_k(r)e^{ikna} e^{-ik(r+na)} = u_k(r)$, which proves Bloch's theorem.

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