I am dealing with a sort of scalar QED with a term of SSB
\begin{equation} \mathcal{L}=\left|D_{\mu} \phi\right|^{2}-\frac{1}{4}\left(F_{\mu \nu}\right)^{2}-V\left(\phi^{*} \phi\right) \end{equation}
with potential
\begin{equation} V(\phi)=-\mu^{2} \phi^{*} \phi+\frac{\lambda}{2}\left(\phi^{*} \phi\right)^{2} \end{equation}
So I have learned here that the classical potential is at tree-level a good approximation for the effective potential $V_{eff}$. Therefore we use it to calculate the vacuum expectation value of the field. The minimum of $V(\phi$) is
\begin{equation} \phi_{0}=\left(\frac{\mu^{2}}{\lambda}\right)^{1 / 2} \end{equation}
and this is a good approximation at TL for the vacuum expectation value \begin{equation} <\phi> \sim \phi_{0} \end{equation}
But now it is not clear to me why we are considering only the potential $V(\phi)$ when calculating the minimum. In fact we have terms with $\phi$ inside the covariant derivative $\left|D_{\mu} \phi\right|^{2}$ as well, meaning for example
\begin{equation} \phi\phi^*A_{\mu}A^{\mu} \end{equation}
Why these terms do not have a role in calculating the minimum of the potential? Meaning why only the self-interaction terms determine the vev?