I have a quantum mechanics homework problem, where I have a particle in one dimension harmonic potential.
Particle's wavefunction is defined as:
$$ \psi(x)=\left\{\begin{matrix} A(b^2-x^2), |x|<a\\ B/x^2, |x|>a \end{matrix}\right. $$
From normalization, continuity($\psi(+a)=\psi(-a)$) and smoothness($\psi'(+a)=\psi'(-a)$) conditions I got that $b=2a^2$, $B=Aa^4$, $A=\frac{15}{16a^5(30a^4-5a^2+1}$, where $a=\sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{m\omega}}$.
Now I need to find a probability to find a particle in region from -a to +a.
Therefore
$$ \int_{-a}^{a}(A(b^2-x^2))^2dx=A^2(32a^9-\frac{16a^7}{3}+\frac{2a^5}{5})=\frac{240a^4-40a^2+3}{240a^4-40a^2+8} $$
But an expression like this is quite meaningless, since it should be a number. However, should I just write a limit that a is approaching 0 or have I made mistake in my calculations somewhere (however, I have checked all of them twice with "WolframAlpha" and haven't managed to find a mistake)?
Thank you very much for any kind of help!