One of the basic calculations in nuclear theory is obtaining nuclear mass based on the liquid drop model. One uses Weizsäcker's formula to get the binding energy
$$E_B=a_VA-a_SA^{2/3}-a_C\frac{Z(Z-1)}{A^{1/3}}-a_A\frac{(Z-N)^2}{A}\pm\delta$$
and the mass follows by
$$M=Zm_p+Nm_n-\frac{E_B}{c^2}$$
I was reading about isospin, in particular the triplet $^{12}\text{B}, ^{12}\text{N}$ and $^{12}\text{C}$ with total isospin $t=1$. But it mentions that the $t = 1$ state in $^{12}\text{C}$ is not the ground state, but it is rather $15~\text{MeV}/c^2$ above the ground state.
Looking at the units with which the gap is expressed, they have to be mass. Does this mean that excited nuclear states have higher mass? I think it makes sense in light of Weizsäcker's formula because excited nucleons would have lower binding energy (they are "higher" inside the potential), but I am not sure.
The problem arises when I try to think in analogy to atomic states, because an electron can certainly be in excited atomic states but I have never heard of its mass increasing because of this.
Are nuclei different in this sense? Or were the units of the gap wrongly reported?
EDIT: After looking at the comment by @DJohnM it ocurred to me that maybe the gap for the atomic states was so small that the mass difference in the electron is negligible. So I calculated it.
Using the hydrogen atom model, the largest energy gap is the one between the $n=1$ and $n=2$ states. The energy of each state is given approximately by
$$-13.6 \frac{Z^2}{n^2}\text{eV}$$
for $^{12}\text{C}$ we have $Z=6$, so the gap is $13.6\cdot 36\left(-\frac{1}{4}+1\right)\text{eV}\approx 367~\text{eV}$. The electron mass on the other hand is approximately $511~\text{keV}/c^2$.
I also used Weizsäcker's formula to get the mass of the $^{12}\text{C}$ nucleus. It is $M_{^{12}\text{C}}\approx 11.2~\text{GeV}/c^2$. Now if we compare how big the gaps are relative to each of the particles's mass we get,
$$\frac{c^2M_{^{12}\text{C}}}{\Delta E_{^{12}\text{C}}}\approx\frac{11.2~\text{GeV}}{15~\text{MeV}}\approx745$$
(I used the fractions inverted because it seems clearer) and for the electron
$$\frac{c^2m_e}{\Delta E_e}\approx\frac{511~\text{keV}}{367~\text{eV}}\approx1392$$
This means that the gaps are on the same order of magnitude, so you couldn't argue that the case of the electron is negligible. Then, why is it never mentioned? How would you account for this variability in the Schrödinger equation (there is the factor of $1/2m$ with the momentum operator)?