As stated in the title, I'm studying Non-degenerate Perturbation Theory with the book 'Modern Quantum Mechanics' by J.J. Sakurai. The problem to solve is $$(H_0+\lambda V)|n\rangle = E_n |n\rangle$$ where the exact eigenkets and energy eigenvalues are known: $H_0 |n^{(0)}\rangle= E_n^{(0)}|n^{(0)}\rangle$. He defines the energy shift $\Delta_n\equiv E_n-E_n^{(0)}$, and transforms the original equation to this: $$(E_n^{(0)}-H_0)|n\rangle = (\lambda V-\Delta_n)|n\rangle$$ Also, he defines $\phi_n\equiv 1-|n^{(0)}\rangle \langle n^{(0)}|$ and says the inverse operator $\frac{1}{E_n^{(0)}-H_0}$ is well defined when it multiplies $\phi_n$ on the right. But then, he says the equation can't be rewrited as $$|n\rangle = \frac{1}{E_n^{(0)}-H_0}\phi_n (\lambda V-\Delta_n)|n\rangle$$ and it needs to be like this: $$|n\rangle = c_n(\lambda)|n^{(0)}\rangle +\frac{1}{E_n^{(0)}-H_0}\phi_n (\lambda V-\Delta_n)|n\rangle$$ where $ \lim_{\lambda \to 0} \, c_n(\lambda)=1$.
My question is, why can't you write the equation in the first form, and where does the term $c_n(\lambda)$ come from?