I am quite a newbie at Electromagnetism and I have been reading Intro to Electrodynamics by Griffiths. I have a doubt and I would highly appreciate any help :)
The author states that for the Electric Displacement vector $D = \epsilon_0E+P$ obeys its own Gauss Law: $\nabla \cdot D= \rho_{\text{free charge}}$ but that there is not any Coulomb's Law for D since $\nabla \times D \stackrel{\nabla \times E = 0}{=} \nabla \times P \neq 0\text{ (generally)}$ (so D it is not like E).
However, when we find ourselves inside a linear isotropic homogeneous dielectric ($P = \text{constant}$) we know that $\nabla \times P = 0 = \nabla \times D$ (the same as E). Later he concludes that
$D = \epsilon_0 E_{\text{vacuum}}$ where $E_{\text{vacuum}} =$ the electric field without the dielectric (generated by $\rho_{\text{free charge}}$) and I can't imagine how he reached there (that's my question).
Thus we DO have a Coulomb's Law for D in this particular case using the free charge to get the field.
I understand that $\nabla \times D = 0 = \epsilon_0\nabla \times E$ and $\nabla \cdot D = \rho_{\text{free charge}}\stackrel{\text{Gauss Law}}{=} \epsilon_0\nabla \cdot E_{\text{vacuum}}$ but as far as I am concerned that is not sufficient to state that $D=\epsilon_0E_{\text{vacuum}}$ (it could be proved if D was parallel to E though). How can I prove this equality?