The title of the post is probably a little broad. In particular, I am looking at a proof from "Mechanics" by Landau and Lifshitz. The authors begin in reference frame $K$, in which a system of $n$ particles have the velocities $\mathbf{v}_1,\mathbf{v}_2,...,\mathbf{v}_n$. The energy of the system is given by:
$E=\frac{1}{2}\sum_am_av_a^2+U$,
where the potential energy function, $U$, depends only on the positions of the particles.
They then say that there is a second reference frame $K'$ which moves at a velocity $\mathbf{V}$ with respect to $K$. In this frame the $i^{\text{th}}$ particle has velocity $\mathbf{v}'_i$, where:
$\mathbf{v}_i=\mathbf{v}'_i+\mathbf{V}$.
Thus, they say, one can find the law of transformation of the energy between the two frames by making the substitution:
$E=\frac{1}{2}\sum_am_a(\mathbf{v}'_i+\mathbf{V})^2+U$.
What I find confusing is that they assume that the potential energy function is unchanged by the change of reference frames. I can see that this would be the case if one considers a closed system in which all interactions depend on the distance between the particles. But they do not make the claim that the system is closed. If there is an external potential, then it seems true that:
$U(\mathbf{r}_i)\rightarrow U(\mathbf{r}_i'+\mathbf{V}t)$.
Is this the case?
Intuitively, it does seem that the potential energy of a classical particle shouldn't depend on where we view it from. I just can't see why this is necessarily true when I perform the transformation. Thanks.