Here is a kinematic problem which I solved using a rigorous geometrical approach. However, a high-school student suggested a different quicker approach, which has its own intricacies. I wish to understand how to correctly apply the latter, quicker "high-school", approach.
The Problem
We have this kinematic situation, where the 2 ropes are being pulled down with a speed u. The block moves up with speed v. We have to find the relation between u and v.
The correct answer to the problem is: $$ \textbf{v} = \frac{\textbf{u}}{cos(\theta)} $$
Doubt#1 : The Quicker, High-school Approach -- How does it work?
In this diagram, the student suggests, first drop a perpendicular from A to OB on C. Now, in $\Delta{ABC}$, we can see that $u = v*cos(\theta)$.
However, the basis for this argument is not clear. I mean, a different student came up with a different answer when he said that if we look at $\Delta{OAB}$, we see that $v = u*cos(\theta)$.
How exactly does this approach work? How do we know which answer is the correct one?
Doubt#2 : Why don't the kinematic quantities add up as the dynamic quantities do?
Another student raised another interesting doubt. The answer that he came up with was this:
$$ \textbf{v} = \frac{2\textbf{u}}{cos(\theta)} $$
You must have guessed why he came with this answer. His argument was that since there are 2 symmetrical ropes, their motion will add up to give the motion of the block. He said that just like forces add up, the displacements/velocities should also add up. Now, the argument is clearly fallacious.
But how do I explain the fallacy to a high-school student?
APPENDIX -- The Rigorous Geometric Approach:
Here is the formal geometric approach which I used to derive the correct answer.
In the diagram shown above, we know that:
$$POB = L \text{ (constant, total length of string)}$$ $$PO + OB = L \label{a} \tag{1}$$ $$PO + \frac{OA}{sin(\theta)} = L$$
Now, differentiate the above expression w.r.t. time (knowing that OA is constant, and $\dot{PO} = \textbf{u}$):
$$\dot{PO} - \frac{OA*cos(\theta)}{sin^2(\theta)}*\dot{\theta} = 0$$ $$\dot{\theta} = \frac{sin^2(\theta)}{OA*cos(\theta)}*\textbf{u} \label{b} \tag{2}$$
Now, take equation \ref{a} again, put $OB = \frac{AB}{cos(\theta)}$, and then differentiate w.r.t. time:
$$ PO + \frac{AB}{cos(\theta)} = L$$ $$ \dot{PO} + \frac{\dot{AB}}{cos(\theta)} + \frac{AB*sin(\theta)}{cos^2(\theta)}*\dot{\theta} = 0$$
Now, $\dot{PO} = \textbf{u}$, $\dot{AB} = - \textbf{v}$ and $AB = OA*tan(\theta)$. Hence: $$ \textbf{u} - \frac{\textbf{v}}{cos(\theta)} + \frac{OA*sin(\theta)}{tan(\theta)*cos^2(\theta)}*\dot{\theta} = 0$$ $$ \textbf{u} - \frac{\textbf{v}}{cos(\theta)} + \frac{OA}{cos(\theta)}*\dot{\theta} = 0 \label{c} \tag{3}$$
Now, using equations \ref{b} and \ref{c} to eliminate $\dot{\theta}$, we get the relation:
$$ \textbf{u} = \textbf{v}*cos(\theta) $$