I have here a typical graph of the magnetic susceptibility against temperature for a ferromagnetic substance. I believe I have a general understanding on why there is a general decreasing trend with temperature (thermal motion randomizes magnetic dipole alignment etc.), but I'm interested to know why the decrease in susceptibility in the ferromagnetic phase is much steeper than than in the paramagnetic phase?
I'm looking for a qualitative understanding of why this is so, if anyone can enlighten me on this, that would be great.