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I have here a typical graph of the magnetic susceptibility against temperature for a ferromagnetic substance. I believe I have a general understanding on why there is a general decreasing trend with temperature (thermal motion randomizes magnetic dipole alignment etc.), but I'm interested to know why the decrease in susceptibility in the ferromagnetic phase is much steeper than than in the paramagnetic phase?

I'm looking for a qualitative understanding of why this is so, if anyone can enlighten me on this, that would be great.

Magnetic Susceptibility against temperature for a Ferromagnet

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  • $\begingroup$ Where does this figure come from? I had never seen such a curve. In the case of a second-order transition between the ferromagnetic and paramagnetic phases, the magnetic susceptibility diverge at the critical temperature. $\endgroup$
    – Christophe
    Nov 20, 2016 at 13:16
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    $\begingroup$ @Christophe It's from "Solid state chemistry" textbook by Moore. Wikipedia seems to give a similar graph as well. $\endgroup$
    – Troy
    Nov 20, 2016 at 13:21
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry: I am used to the magnetic susceptibility but in the limit of a vanishing magnetic field. On your curve, the magnetic field is finite, isn't it? This is probably more common experimentally. $\endgroup$
    – Christophe
    Nov 20, 2016 at 20:23

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