i am having some trouble trying to prove the Ehrenfest theorem for the 1-dimensional case. We know that $$ \frac{d}{dt}\langle A\rangle=\frac1{i\hbar}\langle [\hat A,\hat H]\rangle+\langle\frac{\delta\hat A}{\delta t}\rangle. $$
Then, for momentum $\frac {\delta\hat p}{\delta t}=0$, so $$ \frac{d}{dt}\langle p\rangle=\frac1{i\hbar}\langle [\hat p,\hat H]\rangle=\int\Psi^*[\hat p,\hat H]\Psi\ dx. $$
This is the part where my calculation diverges from the one on Wikipedia. Substituting $\hat p=-i\hbar\frac\delta{\delta x}$ and $\hat H=\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\delta^2}{\delta x^2}+V(x)$, we get \begin{align} [\hat p,\hat H]&=\hat p\hat H-\hat H\hat p\\ &=\left(-i\hbar\frac\delta{\delta x} \right)\left(\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\delta^2}{\delta x^2}+V(x) \right)-\left(\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\delta^2}{\delta x^2}+V(x) \right) \left(-i\hbar\frac\delta{\delta x} \right)\\ &=\left(\frac{\hbar^3}{2m}\frac{\delta^3}{\delta x^3}-i\hbar\frac{\delta V(x)}{\delta x} \right)-\left(\frac{\hbar^3}{2m}\frac{\delta^3}{\delta x^3}-i\hbar V(x)\frac\delta{\delta x} \right)\\ &=i\hbar V(x)\frac\delta{\delta x}-i\hbar\frac{\delta V(x)}{\delta x}. \end{align}
The expectation value integral is then $$ \int\Psi^*(i\hbar V(x)\frac\delta{\delta x}-i\hbar\frac{\delta V(x)}{\delta x})\Psi\ dx=\int\Psi^*i\hbar V(x)\frac{\delta\Psi}{\delta x}\ dx-\int\Psi^*i\hbar\frac{\delta V(x)}{\delta t}\Psi\ dx, $$ whereas on Wikipedia it is said to be $$ \int\Psi^*i\hbar V(x)\frac{\delta\Psi}{\delta x}\ dx-\int\Psi^*i\hbar\frac{\delta}{\delta t}(V(x)\Psi)\ dx.$$
Where am I going wrong in the commutator calculation that results in not having $\Psi$ under the derivative in the second integral?