The CFT states that for a finite, classical system, coupled to a set of baths, each characterized by a constant intensive variable , for which the dynamics is stochastic, Markovian and microscopically reversible, and for which the entropy production is odd under time-reversal, the following identity holds:
$\frac{P_F(\omega)}{P_R(-\omega)} = e^{+\omega} $.
Here $\omega$ is the entropy production of the system over some finite time interval. $P_F(\omega)$ gives the probability distribution of this entropy production (because the system is stochastic $\omega$ will be different for each run). $P_R(-\omega)$ gives the distribution for the time-reversed process. What this typically means is that the control parameter $\lambda_F(\tau)$ for the driving force is run in reversed order, $\lambda_R(\tau) = \lambda_F(t-\tau)$, where $t$ is the length of the time interval.
This theorem is derived from the assumption of microscopic reversibility, and this is stated in the form
$\frac{\mathcal{P}[x(+t)|\lambda(+t)]}{\mathcal{P}[\bar{x}(-t)|\bar{\lambda}(-t)]} = \exp{(-\beta Q[x(+t)|\lambda(+t)])}$,
where $\mathcal{P}[x(+t)|\lambda(+t)]$ is the likelihood of seeing the microscopic trajectory $x(+t)$ (corresponding to e.g. positions and momenta of particles) if we apply the control parameter $\lambda(t)$, and the bar indicates the time-reversed processes. $Q$ is the heat produced in the process.
Now consider a process where the control parameter is not varied over time, i.e. $\lambda(\tau) = \lambda$. There seems to be no reason why the theorem should no longer hold. But then there should also be no heat transfer, $Q=0$ and no work done on the system. That would imply that the forward and reverse processes are equally likely. However, consider for instance the mixing of a gas, where initially two different types of particles are separated by a barrier at $t=0$. The barrier is released and the gas molecules are free to move in the whole container. The entropy of the system increases, and the process is clearly irreversible. Yet the Crooks Fluctuation Theorem would still predict equal probabilities of finding the forward and reverse processes.
Is there anyone else that finds this strange?
Crooks' original paper: https://arxiv.org/abs/cond-mat/9901352