2
$\begingroup$

It is known that in a box potential, when we set $V = 0$ inside and $V = \infty$ on the boundaries, the solution to the equation $$ - \frac{\hbar}{2m} \bigg( \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + \frac{ \partial^2}{\partial y^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{\partial z^2} \bigg) \psi(x,y,z) = E \psi(x,y,z) $$ is given by $$ \psi_{n_x, n_y, n_z} (x,y,z) = C \sin( \frac{n_x \pi x}{L}) \sin (\frac{n_y \pi y}{L}) \sin(\frac{n_z \pi z}{L}). $$ Here $L$ is the dimension of the box. The energies are $E_n = \frac{\hbar^2 \pi^2 }{2mL^2} n^2 $ with $n^2 = n_x^2 + n_y^2 + n_z^2$. Now, I was wondering, what if the potential inside the box is not zero, but we let it be $V = V_0$, a constant? What is the solution of the Schrödinger equation then? And what are the energy eigenvalues?

Does this amount to adding a phase factor to the solution (the product of sines)?

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Still the same. Only that $E_n = \frac{\hbar^2n^2\pi^2} {2mL^2} + V_0$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 10, 2016 at 20:56
  • $\begingroup$ I see. But how did you deduce that? $\endgroup$
    – Kamil
    Commented Jun 10, 2016 at 21:07

1 Answer 1

5
$\begingroup$

The equation will become $$ - \frac{\hbar}{2m} \bigg( \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + \frac{ \partial^2}{\partial y^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{\partial z^2} \bigg) \psi(x,y,z) = (E-V_0) \psi(x,y,z) $$ And the solutions are the same: $$ \psi_{n_x, n_y, n_z} (x,y,z) = C \sin( \frac{n_x \pi x}{L}) \sin (\frac{n_y \pi y}{L}) \sin(\frac{n_z \pi z}{L}). $$ And Energy: $$(E_n - V_0) = \frac{\hbar^2\pi^2} {2mL^2}n^2$$ $$E_n = \frac{\hbar^2\pi^2} {2mL^2}n^2 + V_0$$
Path to the solution:

By separation of variables: $$\frac{1}{X}\frac{d^2X}{dx^2} + \frac{1}{Y}\frac{d^2Y}{dy^2} + \frac{1}{Z}\frac{d^2Z}{dz^2} = -\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}(E-V_0)$$ $$\frac{d^2X}{dx^2} = -k_x^2X; \frac{d^2Y}{dy^2} = -k_y^2Y; \frac{d^2Z}{dz^2} = -k_z^2Z$$ with $$(E_n - V_0) = \frac{\hbar^2} {2m}(k_x^2 + k_y^2 + k_z^2)$$ Solution:
$X(x) = A_x\sin k_xx + B_x\cos k_xx$ and so on.
as usual, $B = 0$ because $X(0) = 0$ because of infinite potential at boundaries.
also, $X(L) = 0$ (infinite potential) means $\sin k_xL = 0$ or
$k_x = n_x\pi/L$ and so with the others.
So still the same: $$ \psi_{n_x, n_y, n_z} (x,y,z) = A_xA_yA_z \sin( \frac{n_x \pi x}{L}) \sin (\frac{n_y \pi y}{L}) \sin(\frac{n_z \pi z}{L}). $$ $$ \psi_{n_x, n_y, n_z} (x,y,z) = C \sin( \frac{n_x \pi x}{L}) \sin (\frac{n_y \pi y}{L}) \sin(\frac{n_z \pi z}{L}). $$ $$(E_n - V_0) = \frac{\hbar^2\pi^2} {2mL^2}(n_x^2+n_y^2 + n_z^2)$$

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ This is because $V_0$ is a constant $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 10, 2016 at 21:11
  • $\begingroup$ Very nice little derivation. +10. $\endgroup$
    – Gert
    Commented Jun 10, 2016 at 23:05
  • $\begingroup$ I got this from solution manual (Griffiths) :) but without the $V_0$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 11, 2016 at 8:35

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.