What's wrong with this general solution of the Lippmann-Schwinger equation: $$ |\psi_k \rangle=|\phi_k \rangle+G_k V|\psi_k \rangle $$ Taking the inner product with $\langle\phi_{k'}|$ \begin{align} \langle \phi_{k'}|\psi_k \rangle&=\langle \phi_{k'} |\phi_k \rangle+\langle \phi_{k'} |G_k V|\psi_k \rangle \\ &=\delta(k'-k)+g(E_k-E_{k'})\langle \phi_{k'} |V|\psi_k \rangle\\ &=\delta(k'-k)+g(E_k-E_{k'})\langle \phi_{k'} |H-H_0|\psi_k \rangle\\ &=\delta(k'-k)+g(E_k-E_{k'})\langle \phi_{k'} |E_k-E_{k'}|\psi_k \rangle \end{align} Basic algebra then gives us $$\langle \phi_{k'}|\psi_k \rangle[1-g(E_k-E_{k'})(E_k-E_{k'})]=\delta(k'-k)$$ and isolating the inner product on the left hand side gives us $$\langle \phi_{k'}|\psi_k \rangle=\delta(k'-k) [1-g(E_k-E_{k'})(E_k-E_{k'})]^{-1}$$ where $g(E_k-E_{k'})$ is the eigenvalue of $G_k$ resulting from hitting $\langle \phi_{k'} |$ on the left?
This seems to suggest that the eigenstate $|\psi_k \rangle $ of the full Hamiltonian $H$ is the same as the eigenstate $|\phi_k \rangle$ of $H_0$, up to a proportionality factor, since $|\psi_k \rangle $ has no amplitude to be in $|\phi_{k'\neq k} \rangle$.