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The answer to this question and the comments on it implies that general relativity has not been rigorously shown to be non-renormalizable for all loop diagrams -- only shown for two loops. However, doesn't this paper give a complete proof that GR is non-renormalizable without referring to the two-loop computation mentioned in the question's answer?

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  • $\begingroup$ The answer to this is potentially "yes". That's not a good SE question. $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind ♦
    Commented Jul 11, 2015 at 11:42

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