In 1964, John Bell first derived the original Bell inequality, $|E(a,b)-E(a,c)|\leq1+E(b,c)$. Here $a,b,c$ are three different possible spin measurement directions, and $E$ is the measured correlation, meaning the expectation value of the product of the signs of the two outcomes, given the specified measurement settings. (For example : there are two detectors A and B, and spin is measured in units of $\hbar/2$,now if for a particular measurement A measures +1 and B measures -1 then their product is -1, if we consider many runs of the experiment and caculate the average of the product for directions $a$ and $b$ which is $P(a,b)$, then quantum mechanics predict $P(a,b)= -a.b$.)
From this form of Bell's inequality, consider starting with a singlet spin state, and defining these three measurement directions such that the angle between each of the vectors of spin measurements are 120°. Then, I find that the correlations are $E(a,b)=-a.b= 1/2=E(a,c)=E(b,c)$. Thus $|\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2}|\leq 1+\frac{1}{2}$ means $0\leq3/2$ which satisfies Bell's inequality, instead of violating it.
And yet this example is often used to show a violation of Bell's inequality. In the linked article, the calculation agrees with mine, showing that for any two different measurements, the outcomes have the same sign 75% of the time and a different sign 25% of the time. So the correlation functions $E(a,b)$, etc., are all indeed 0.5. Please help explain in what way this system violates the Bell inequality.