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In the context of Quantum Mechanics and Hilbert spaces, I understand that a function can be interpreted as $\psi(x) = \langle x \vert \psi \rangle$ in the position basis, and things like $$\int_a^b|\psi(x)|^2dx$$make sense interpreting $x$ as a label. But if I think of $\psi(x)$ as an element of $L^2$ and expand $\psi(x)$ in a discrete basis, like $\psi(x)=\sum_a(\phi_a(x),\psi(x))\phi_a(x)$, now the label is $a$ and what does $x$ means now and why the inner product is still the same and does not make any reference to $a$?

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  • $\begingroup$ Illustrate by Fourier analyzing a periodic function, and then resolving a function in quantum oscillator eigenfunctions. Can you now see the map from natural to real numbers and sharpen your question? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 22, 2022 at 10:38
  • $\begingroup$ probably closely related: physics.stackexchange.com/a/359982/50583 $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind
    Commented Apr 22, 2022 at 12:13

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When you represent a periodic function by a Fourier series you do pretty much the same thing: you represent it by sines instead of δ-functions.

For your specific example, you have two alternate resolutions of the identity/ completeness relations, $$ 1\!\!1= \int\!\! dx ~|x\rangle\langle x| \\ 1\!\!1= \sum_a |a\rangle \langle a| $$ where, importantly, $\langle a|x \rangle = \phi_a^* (x)$, your change of basis "matrix".

You then have $$ \psi(x)=\langle x|\psi\rangle = \sum_a \langle x|a\rangle \langle a|\psi\rangle = \sum_a \phi_a(x) ~~\psi_a, ~~\hbox{where}\\ \psi_a=\langle a|\psi\rangle= \int\!\! dx ~ \phi^*_a(x)~ \psi(x), $$ by the above completeness relation. In your expression, you used the same x as a variable, and as a dummy integration variable in your inner product--a disastrous practice.

It is crucial to test-drive this equivalence with the Hermite functions $\psi_n(x)=\langle x|n\rangle$, where the discrete index is the natural number identifying the quantum oscillator energy level, if you have not already done so.

Useful link as per your comment.

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  • $\begingroup$ An important point is also that $\psi(x) \in \mathbb C$ is a number while $|a\rangle, |\psi\rangle \in \mathcal H$ are states on the Hilbert space. However, $|x\rangle$ does (strictly speakin) not exist as a state on the Hilbert space. Only the "bra" $\langle x|$ exists as a linear map on the Hilbert space ($\langle x| : \mathcal H \to \mathbb C$). This is the reason why they must be treated differently, even though they are similar in prinicple. One would write $|\psi\rangle = \sum_a \psi_a |\phi_a\rangle$ as an equality on $\mathcal H$, but not $|\psi\rangle = \int dx \psi(x) |x\rangle$. $\endgroup$
    – Cream
    Commented Apr 22, 2022 at 12:30
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks a lot for your answers. This was my first question in this forum. I need to "digest" all these. My goal is to find out how you can do QM without the rigged Hilbert space, delta functional, etc. I know that it has to be with the spectral theorem and that we need to restate our equations in terms of projection operators, which are well-defined in Hilbert space. I need to study. It is not that I don't like the rigged Hilbert space; it is because I want to know why so many books don't talk about it explicitly, but used all the time. $\endgroup$
    – Pablo
    Commented Apr 22, 2022 at 12:48
  • $\begingroup$ You say: "In your expression, you used the same x as a variable, and as a dummy integration variable in your inner product--a disastrous practice" ¿How can I write the same expression correctly? $\endgroup$
    – Pablo
    Commented May 26, 2022 at 22:25
  • $\begingroup$ $\psi(x)=\sum_a(\phi_a(y),\psi(y))~~\phi_a(x)$, but it's still a clumsy expression... $\endgroup$ Commented May 27, 2022 at 13:33
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The expression $$p(a,b)=\int_a^b|\psi(x)|^2dx$$ is the probability that you will find a particle in the interval $[a,b]$. So it is a measurement of position.

The expression $$\psi(x)=\sum_c(\phi_c(x),\psi(x))\phi_c(x)$$ is writing down a function in terms of other functions, which doesn't change its value anywhere on the interval $[a,b]$ so it won't affect $p(a,b)$. Each $c$ is just a label, like the $x$: it's just a different way of labeling the same function.

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  • $\begingroup$ You're right. Thanks. $\endgroup$
    – Pablo
    Commented Apr 24, 2022 at 4:35

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