Does there exist a Schrödinger equation for the energy space, like for momentum? I would say no, because the energy basis is countable, but are there any other reasons?
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4$\begingroup$ You are unhappy with the number basis of the quantum harmonic oscillator? Why? $\endgroup$– Cosmas ZachosCommented Feb 11, 2022 at 17:05
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$\begingroup$ $E\psi(E) = E\psi(E)$? $\endgroup$– By SymmetryCommented Feb 11, 2022 at 18:03
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$\begingroup$ @BySymmetry so does that mean that the time evolution would make no sense? $\endgroup$– SilasCommented Feb 11, 2022 at 19:16
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1$\begingroup$ The energy basis is only countable for bound states. For example for the free particle $E=p^2/2m$. In this case the energy and momentum bases are the same. $\endgroup$– JojoCommented Feb 12, 2022 at 10:46
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$\begingroup$ @Joe yes but the position basis would be still uncountable in unbound systems $\endgroup$– SilasCommented Feb 12, 2022 at 14:09
2 Answers
The basis-independent form of the Schrödinger equation is $$i\hbar\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}t}\lvert\alpha\rangle = H\lvert\alpha\rangle.$$
If we wish to express this in a particular basis, we simply multiply by the corresponding basis bras. Thus, in the energy basis, we get \begin{align} \langle n\rvert i\hbar\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}t}\lvert\alpha\rangle &= \langle n\rvert H\lvert\alpha\rangle\\ i\hbar\dot c_\alpha(n) &= E_n c_\alpha(n), \end{align}
where $c_\alpha(n)$ is the energy-space wavefunction for the state $\lvert\alpha\rangle$, and $\lvert n\rangle$ are the energy eigenstates with eigenvalues $E_n$. Here, we can see that the energy basis is actually quite nice to work with, due to the fact that the time derivative of $c_\alpha(n)$ only depends $c_\alpha(n)$ and not on the value of $c_\alpha$ at other "points" (energy levels).
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$\begingroup$ Sandejo jumped too quick from Eq.(2) to Eq.(3). An intermediate equation is $ \langle n \rvert H \sum_m \lvert m \rangle \langle m \rvert \lvert \alpha \rangle$. Then you have to discuss on the element $ \langle n \rvert H \lvert m \rangle$, if it is diagonal. $\endgroup$– ytluCommented Feb 11, 2022 at 23:01
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1$\begingroup$ @ytlu I'm defining $\langle n\rvert$ to be eigenbras of the hamiltonian, so $\langle n\rvert H=E_n\langle n\rvert$. For this reason, your intermediate step is unnecessary here. $\endgroup$– SandejoCommented Feb 12, 2022 at 1:48
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$\begingroup$ The eigen states are supposed to comes out from the constructing schrodinger equation. You use the eigen states to construct the generating equation, a circling logic. It supposes to start with an arbitrary bases. $\endgroup$– ytluCommented Feb 12, 2022 at 11:12
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1$\begingroup$ @ytlu The Schrödinger equation is a basis-independent description of the time evolution of a system, so it is not necessary to use any basis. How you obtain the the eigenstates is irrelevant to that fact that the equation can be expressed in the energy basis. $\endgroup$– SandejoCommented Feb 12, 2022 at 22:01
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2$\begingroup$ @ytlu The "time evolution for the coefficients" is the Schrödinger equation expressed in a given basis. For example, in your answer, when you give the Schrödinger equation in the position basis, you are writing the time evolution equation for the coefficients of position eigenstates, denoted by $\Psi(\vec r,t)$. Writing the Schrödinger equation in any basis (including the position basis) requires that you already have the relevant set of basis kets. $\endgroup$– SandejoCommented Feb 13, 2022 at 22:32
Let's first recall the process of emergence of the momentum schrödinger equation, strating from the time-independent schrödinger equation. We make a Fourier transformation in time, then obtain a spatial equation with eigen energy $E = \hbar \omega$: \begin{align} i\hbar\frac{\partial \Psi(\vec r,t)}{\partial t} &= -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \Psi(\vec r,t) + V(\vec r) \Psi(\vec r, t). \\ \text{Define }\,\psi_{\omega}(\vec r) &= \int dt \,\Psi(\vec r,t)\, e^{i\omega t}.\\ \hbar\omega \,\psi_{\omega}(\vec r) &= -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \psi_{\omega}(\vec r) + V(\vec r) \psi_{\omega}(\vec r). \end{align} The final expression is the one you called the momentum space equation, an equation in space.
Can we do it in the other way by first taking Fourier transformation in space, and leave an equation in time. Yes, but it comes with some complexity. \begin{align} i\hbar\frac{\partial \Psi(\vec r,t)}{\partial t} &= -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla^2 \Psi(\vec r,t) + V(\vec r) \Psi(\vec r, t). \\ \text{Define }\,\xi_{\vec k}(t) &= \int d^3r \,\Psi(\vec r,t)\, e^{-i\vec k \cdot \vec r}.\\ \int d^3r\, e^{-i\vec k \cdot \vec r} & \left\{ i\hbar\frac{\partial \Psi(\vec r,t)}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2 \Psi(\vec r,t) + V(\vec r) \Psi(\vec r, t). \right\}\\ i\hbar\frac{\partial\xi_{\vec k}(t)}{\partial t} &= +\frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m} \xi_{\vec k}(t) + \int d^3r\, e^{-i\vec k \cdot \vec r} V(\vec r) \Psi(\vec r, t).\\ \end{align}
A trick is needed to convert the last term. Remind that $$ \delta^3(\vec r - \vec r') = \frac{1}{(2\pi)^3}\int\, d^3q\, e^{i\vec q \cdot(\vec r - \vec r')} $$ Apply this to the previous equation: \begin{align} i\hbar\frac{\partial \xi_{\vec k}(t)}{\partial t} &= +\frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m} \xi_{\vec k}(t) + \int d^3r\, e^{-i\vec k \cdot \vec r} V(\vec r) \Psi(\vec r, t).\\ &= \frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m} \xi_{\vec k}(t) + \int d^3r\, e^{-i\vec k \cdot \vec r} V(\vec r) \int d^3\vec r' \delta^3(\vec r - \vec r') \Psi(\vec r', t).\\ &= \frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m} \xi_{\vec k}(t) + \frac{1}{(2\pi)^3}\int d^3r\, e^{-i\vec k \cdot \vec r} V(\vec r) \int d^3\vec r' \int\, d^3q\, e^{i\vec q \cdot (\vec r - \vec r')} \Psi(\vec r', t).\\ &= \frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m} \xi_{\vec k}(t) + \frac{1}{(2\pi)^3}\int d^3r\, e^{-i\vec k \cdot \vec r} V(\vec r) \int\, d^3q\, e^{i\vec q \cdot\vec r}\left\{\int d^3\vec r' \, e^{-i\vec q \cdot \vec r'}\,\Psi(\vec r', t).\right\}\\ &= \frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m} \xi_{\vec k}(t) + \frac{1}{(2\pi)^3}\int d^3r\, e^{-i\vec k \cdot \vec r} V(\vec r) \int\, d^3q\, e^{i\vec q \cdot \vec r} \xi_{\vec q}(t).\\ &=\frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m} \xi_{\vec k}(t) + \frac{1}{(2\pi)^3} \int d^3q \left\{\int d^3r e^{-i (\vec k -\vec q) \cdot \vec r} V(\vec r) \right\} \xi_{\vec q}(t).\\ &=\frac{\hbar^2 k^2}{2m} \xi_{\vec k}(t) + \frac{1}{(2\pi)^3} \int d^3q V_{\vec k - \vec q} \xi_{\vec q}(t).\\ \end{align} The result is a first order differential equation in time, but with a pay at the non-local connection in the momentum space.