Timeline for Is there a fundamental reason why gravitational mass is the same as inertial mass?

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13 events

when toggle format	what		by	license	comment
Jan 26, 2018 at 10:04	history	edited	Qmechanic♦		edited tags
Feb 16, 2015 at 13:18	history	edited	Qmechanic♦	CC BY-SA 3.0	added 3 characters in body; edited tags
Feb 16, 2015 at 13:18	history	protected	Qmechanic♦
Oct 22, 2011 at 2:33	comment	added	Alan Rominger		This sounds like a teaser for a general relativity class. Indeed, the observation that these two things are equal and that being equal is non-trivial is one of the most important observations in physics.
Oct 22, 2011 at 1:47	answer	added	Nikolaj-K		timeline score: 2
Oct 22, 2011 at 1:32	history	edited	David Z		edited tags
Oct 2, 2011 at 21:19	answer	added	V. Krasnoholovets		timeline score: -5
May 1, 2011 at 9:23	comment	added	ravithekavi		@Luboš Motl: i half-expected that the principle of equivalence as a postulate would be regarded as more basic. what are the physical ingredients that go into the "derivation" from string theory that you mention?
May 1, 2011 at 8:46	comment	added	Qmechanic♦		Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/2425/2451
May 1, 2011 at 5:08	answer	added	user1355		timeline score: 3
May 1, 2011 at 4:56	comment	added	Luboš Motl		The fundamental reason why gravitational mass is the same as inertial mass is called the principle of equivalence. In GR, this principle is a postulate - an assumption. In string theory, one may derive it from a different starting point. At any rate, one finds out that the objects move through a curved space, and because all of them move in a way that only depends on the spacetime geometry and not the object's identity, the acceleration has to be universal in all situations, and gravitational masses have to be equal to inertial masses.
May 1, 2011 at 4:40	answer	added	Zo the Relativist		timeline score: 16
May 1, 2011 at 3:54	history	asked	ravithekavi	CC BY-SA 3.0