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Jan 17, 2019 at 0:19 review Suggested edits
Jan 17, 2019 at 6:32
Sep 23, 2014 at 19:15 answer added Void timeline score: 2
Sep 23, 2014 at 2:22 answer added user1476176 timeline score: 2
Aug 27, 2014 at 19:43 answer added user121330 timeline score: 3
Jul 14, 2014 at 13:33 answer added steveOw timeline score: 2
Apr 18, 2014 at 7:57 history edited Hunter CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 18, 2013 at 23:10 history edited user1476176
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Dec 18, 2013 at 12:14 history edited Qmechanic
math phys tag does not apply
Dec 18, 2013 at 10:10 history edited user1476176 CC BY-SA 3.0
Added new ideas, fixed two old typos
Dec 16, 2013 at 8:27 comment added David Z Yeah, that was my thought as well. After all, at least in classical mechanics, the whole rotational dynamics formalism (angular momentum, torque, etc.) is a way of eliminating degrees of freedom with trivial behavior from certain kinds of systems, namely those that exhibit pure rotational motion.
Dec 16, 2013 at 8:13 comment added user1476176 That would be a very elegant resolution! I think it would lead to 'double-counting' constraints though. Suppose my particle accelerates in a circle... is that because the force is tangent to the circle at each point, or because there's a torque? I think the answer is 'either,' because the conditions are redundant.
Dec 16, 2013 at 6:26 answer added BMS timeline score: 1
Dec 16, 2013 at 4:33 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackPhysics/status/412440209180348418
Dec 16, 2013 at 3:47 comment added David Z Good question. I think the gist is that the missing constraints in 3D turn into conservation of angular momentum, but others here are certainly better qualified than I am to show that (if I'm not wrong) so I'll leave it to someone else to write an answer.
Dec 16, 2013 at 3:37 review First posts
Dec 16, 2013 at 3:40
Dec 16, 2013 at 3:35 history edited David Z
edited tags
Dec 16, 2013 at 3:19 history asked user1476176 CC BY-SA 3.0